No. Take $G={\rm SL}(2,{\Bbb R})$, $\ H=\{\,h(\lambda)={\rm diag}(\lambda, \lambda^{-1})\ |\ \lambda\in {\Bbb R}, \lambda>0\,\}$,
$$U=\bigg\{ u(a)=
\begin{pmatrix}
1 &a\\ 0&1
\end{pmatrix}\ \ \bigg|\ \ a\in {\Bbb R}\ \bigg\}.$$
The Lie groups $U$ and $H$ are isomorphic
via the isomorphism $u(a)\mapsto h(e^a)$.
In any Lie overgroup $G'$ containing $G$, the subgroups $H$ and $U$ of $G$ act on $L' ={\rm Lie\,}G'$ via a smooth finite dimensional representation
$${\rm Ad}\colon\, G\hookrightarrow G'\to {\rm GL}(L').$$
of the Lie group $G$. Since any such representation of $G$ is polynomial (I don't know a reference!), we see that each element of ${\rm Ad}(U)$ is unipotent (has all eigenvalues 1), whereas each element of ${\rm Ad}(H)$ is semisimple. We conclude that ${\rm Ad}(U)$ and ${\rm Ad}(H)$ are not conjugate in ${\rm GL}(L')$, and therefore $U$ and $H$ are not conjugate in $G'$.