I asked the following question with my account that I have for these sites Mathematics Stack Exchange and MathOverflow. The bounty that I offered in MSE expired without answers. The post that I refer is this *MSE 3591614* (March, 23th 2020). See the useful comments that were added in MSE.

Few weeks ago I wondered about if the following conjecture is in the literature or well if it is possible to find a counterexample. I evoke a generalization of a well-known conjecture, I mean the *Feit–Thompson conjecture* from Wikipedia.

An integer $n>1$ is square-free or squarefree if has no repeated prime factors. For example $n=15$ is squarefree, while than $12$ has repeated prime factors.

**Conjecture.** *There are no distinct square-free integers* $p$ *and* $q$ *(both greater than* $1$*) with* $\gcd(p,q)=1$ *such that* $\frac{p^q-1}{p-1}$ *divides* $\frac{q^p-1}{q-1}$.

Question.What work can be done about the veracity of this conjecture? Since Feit–Thompson conjecture seems a particular case of this, then I'm asking if previous conjecture is in the literature, or well if you've some approach or heuristic about theConjectureor well if it is possible to find a counterexample.Many thanks.

I wrote a Pari/GP program and I've tested the **Conjecture**, let's say for the segments of integers $2\leq p,q\leq 2000$. I hope that there were not mistakes and this post is interesting.

## References:

[1] Feit, W. and Thompson, J. G., *A Solvability Criterion for Finite Groups and Some Consequences*, Proc. Nat. Acad. Sci. USA 48, 968-970, (1962).

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