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I have asked a similar question on MSE but I did not receive any replies, so I am reposting here in case it is more appropriate (though I have slightly generalized the question).

As an example consider the Laplacian operator. The inverse of the Laplacian is given by $$(-\Delta)^{-1} u(x) = C \int_{\mathbb{R}^n} u(x-y) \frac{1}{|y|^{n-2}} dy$$ where $n$ is the dimension of $\mathbb{R}^n$.

I would like to learn more about such operators, as I have often seen their formulas stated but not explained. For example, we can motivate fractional powers of the Laplacian by use of the Fourier transform. I am looking for a similar explanation but for the inverse.

Some of the questions I have been thinking about are:

  1. How are these explicit inverses derived? In the case of the Laplacian, is there a reason its inverse is identical to its fundamental solution?
  2. Under what conditions and for which function spaces are the inverses valid?
  3. In the case of a differential operator, I assume that we gain some degree of regularity by applying its inverse, but how is this proven? What is the image of this operator?

I have struggled to find this information in any textbooks. Can anyone suggest some textbooks or references in this direction? Thanks.

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    $\begingroup$ The term you are looking for is "Pseudo Differential Operators". Google will provide a lot of references. $\endgroup$
    – user473423
    Commented Jul 20, 2023 at 5:08
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    $\begingroup$ These inverse operators are convolutions with fundamental solutions. See Hormander's book, Analysis of Linear differential operators. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 20, 2023 at 6:03
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    $\begingroup$ Wiki: Green's function / Fundamental solution $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 20, 2023 at 7:04
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    $\begingroup$ Hmm... The operator theorist within me tries to push me to make a scene whenever I see such a formula together with the claim that this were "the inverse of [put your favourite differential operator here]". The inverse of an operator depends on its domain (my inner operator theorist would actually say that you don't even have an operator as long as you haven't fixed the domain). If you consider $\Delta$ on a domain that includes the constant functions (e.g. $C^\infty$) then it's not even injective and thus doesn't have an inverse. ... $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 20, 2023 at 9:56
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    $\begingroup$ But even if one has injectivity, the inverse is only given by convolution with the Green kernel if all functions in the domain of $\Delta$ satisfy somekind of decay condition. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 20, 2023 at 9:56

1 Answer 1

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There are many possible answers to this question, depending on the type of the differential operator, the domain of the functions, and whether you want to impose any additional conditions such as specifying boundary data.

For example, if you assume that the differential operator has constant coefficients, then the Malgrange-Ehrenpreis theorem shows that such a Green's function exists on $\mathbb{R}^n$.

In general, given a linear differential operator $P$ on a domain $D \subset \mathbb{R}^n$, the existence of an inverse operator is essentially equivalent to showing that there exists a constant $C$ such that for any compactly supported functions $f$ and $u$ on $D$, there is an a priori bound of the form $$ \|u\|_1 \le C\|_f\|_2, $$ where $\|\cdot\|_1$ and $\|\cdot\|_2$ are appropriately chosen norms, depending on what $P$ is.

If $P$ is elliptic on a domain $D$ and suitable assumptions are made on both $P$ and $D$, then an inverse operator exists (but is not unique) and is a pseudodifferential operator (a generalization of differential operators defined using the Fourier transform).

If $P$ is hyperbolic on a domain $D$ and suitable assumptions are made on both $P$ and $D$, then an inverse operator exists and is a Fourier integral operator (a generalization of pseudodifferential operators, also defined using the Fourier transform).

Analogous but different stories hold for parabolic, hypoelliptic, and many other types of differential operators. The problem is that there is no systematic approach that unifies all of these results. Each type is handled using an ad hoc approach tailored to the assumptions.

Back in the 60's and 70's, there was a big effort by many, including Hormander, Nirenberg, Treves, to identify which differential operators have inverse operators. However, the effort never completely succeeded, and everyone started focusing more on nonlinear PDEs.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you, this is exactly the kind of information I was looking for. Do you have any recommended textbooks or readings in this direction? $\endgroup$
    – CBBAM
    Commented Jul 20, 2023 at 16:23
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    $\begingroup$ The use of pseudodifferential operators to study elliptic PDEs is not an overly complicated story, so it's a good place to start. I recommend searching around for not overly long lecture notes on this. Michael Taylor has some nice books that discuss this. Francois Treves also has one: Introduction to Pseudodifferential and Fourier Integral Operators Volume 1. $\endgroup$
    – Deane Yang
    Commented Jul 20, 2023 at 16:49
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    $\begingroup$ @CBBAM in due time: your statement about the fundamental solution of the Laplacian mapping $C^k$ to $C^{k+2}$ is not true, see e.g. the end of my MO answer mathoverflow.net/a/346362/11211 $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 20, 2023 at 19:34
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    $\begingroup$ @PedroLauridsenRibeiro Thank you for your comment, I had assumed it held true on the basis of the Laplacian, but this seems to be much more interesting than I had thought. $\endgroup$
    – CBBAM
    Commented Jul 20, 2023 at 19:40
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    $\begingroup$ To add some color to @PedroLauridsenRibeiro’s remark, if you use other function spaces such as Sobolev spaces and Holder spaces (with non-integer Holder exponent), the inverse to the Laplacian does regain the two derivatives. $\endgroup$
    – Deane Yang
    Commented Jul 20, 2023 at 20:37

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