Recently, I asked a somewhat related question here. In the comment section, I found the formula $$ \lim_{r\to 0}\frac{1}{r}\int_{\Omega_r} f(x)\,dx = \int_{\partial \Omega}f(\sigma)\,d\mathcal{H}^{n-1}(\sigma), $$ where $\Omega_r=\{x\in\Omega: \text{dist}(x,\partial\Omega)<r \}$ is the ring of thickness $r>0$ near the boundary of a (bounded) Lipschitz domain $\Omega\subset \Bbb R^n$. It appears that the formula holds at least for all $f\in C(\overline\Omega)$.
Question: Does similar formula hold for $f\in W^{1,p}(\Omega)$ ? In particular, do we have $$ \lim_{r\to 0}\frac{1}{r}\int_{\Omega_r} |f(x)|^p\,dx = \int_{\partial \Omega}|f(\sigma)|^p \,d\mathcal{H}^{n-1}(\sigma) ? $$
Of course, $f$ on the right-hand side should be thought of as the trace of $f$ in $L^p(\partial\Omega)$.
I notice that the coarea formula almost gives us the result. If I let $d(x) := \text{dist}(x,\partial\Omega)$, then the coarea formula implies that $$ \int_{\Omega_r} |f(x)|^p\,dx = \int_0^r \int_{\{d=t\}} |f(\sigma)|^p \,d\mathcal{H}^{n-1}(\sigma) \,dt $$ hence it follows that $$\lim_{r\to 0}\frac{1}{r}\int_{\Omega_r} |f(x)|^p\,dx = \int_{\{d=0\}} |f(\sigma)|^p \,d\mathcal{H}^{n-1}(\sigma) = \int_{\partial\Omega} |f(\sigma)|^p \,d\mathcal{H}^{n-1}(\sigma) $$ if we know that $t\mapsto \int_{\{d=t\}} |f(\sigma)|^p \,d\mathcal{H}^{n-1}(\sigma) $ is approximately continuous at $t=0$, which I do not know.
Edit: I forgot to mention that I assume $p<n$ otherwise the solution follows easily from the first formula (and Morrey's theorem).