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Real-valued functions of real variable, analytic properties of functions and sequences, limits, continuity, smoothness of these.
-4
votes
When does $\nabla\times(\nabla\times F)=0$ imply $\nabla \times F=0$
For some scalar function g: $ rot\ F=grad\ g$. Necessary and sufficient!
2
votes
Fourier transform of $sin(\frac{1}{x})$ for $x > 0 (x > 1)$
The explicit answer is the formula 2.5.24.1 on page 433 from Brychkov, Marichev, Prudnikov Integral and Series, vol. 1. Note that for the odd function the FT reduces to sinT, and take $\alpha=1, \delt …
2
votes
Proof of the "Neo-classical Inequality", a fractional extension of the binomial theorem
As far as I know this inequality was first proved by Terry Lyons in 90-s by standard method of Lagrange multipliers.