Skip to main content

All Questions

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
1 vote
1 answer
1k views

Does weak-* convergence in $W^{1,\infty}$ imply weak-* convergence in $L^\infty$?

Let $\Omega \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ be open and bounded. What does weak-* convergence for a sequence of functions $\{f_k\}_{k \in \mathbb{N}}$ in $W^{1,\infty}(\Omega)$ mean? It seems to me that there ...