Skip to main content

All Questions

3 questions with no upvoted or accepted answers
Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
5 votes
0 answers
245 views

Can invariant means be really considered as the generalization of the uniform measure?

I am writing a paper for game theorists where I use (countable) amenable groups to do some things. So I am writing up a preliminary section about countable amenable groups whose main purpose is to ...
Valerio Capraro's user avatar
2 votes
0 answers
99 views

Measure invariant under circle maps

Consider continuous bijections (may even assume these are homeomorphisms or diffeomorphisms if it helps) from the circle onto itself given by $x \mapsto x + s_i(x)$ where $i = 1,2$ or $3$. (I'm ...
ARG's user avatar
  • 4,432
2 votes
0 answers
109 views

Non-ergodic Dye Theorem for orbit equivalent automorphisms

The Dye Theorem states that any two free ergodic p.m.p automorphisms of a standard probability space are orbit-equivalent. Question: Is there a version of the above theorem for non-ergodic ...
Łukasz Grabowski's user avatar