Q: What is the probability that you will spin the same number all 3 times but with 8 numbers?

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All numbers should have the same probability of appearing. The fact that some number appeared (by chance) more often in the past, has no bearing on the future probability.All numbers should have the same probability of appearing. The fact that some number appeared (by chance) more often in the past, has no bearing on the future probability.All numbers should have the same probability of appearing. The fact that some number appeared (by chance) more often in the past, has no bearing on the future probability.All numbers should have the same probability of appearing. The fact that some number appeared (by chance) more often in the past, has no bearing on the future probability.

The probability depends on the range of numbers from which to choose. If there is no limit to the range then probability is incalculable.

The probability is(the total number of numbers on the spinner minus 5)/(the total number of numbers on the spinner)Another way to express the same probability is1 - 5/(the total number of numbers on the spinner)

50%

It is 0.722... recurring.

Even numbers: 2, 4, 6, the probability to get an ven number is 3/6 = 1/2 The probability to get 4 even number in a row is then (1/2)4 = 1/24 = 1 / 16 It is the same probability to get 4 odd numbers (1,3,5) in a row

The probability of both dice showing the same number is 1/6 and the probability of different numbers is 5/6.

No, because the square of a number is that number times itself, so a no two numbers will have the same square.

What lottery? What country? Please note that having it appear a certain number of times in the past will have NO INFLUENCE WHATSOEVER on the probability of this number appearing in the future. Numbers are chosen at random, without consideration to previous draws, so each number has the same probability to appear. For more details, read the Wikipedia article on "Gambler's fallacy".

The first dice can show any number. However the second dice has a 1 in 6 chance of being the same as the first. Hence the probability of getting two numbers the same is 1/6.

well the law of large numbers is A therom that describes the result of performing the same experiment a large number of times and its like empirical because its like actually experimenting it or something like that .

The probability is 0.0198. The probability of that happening twice is 0.000393 Is this the odds of it happening twice with the same number?

It depends on the spinner: how many sides it has, whether or not they are the same size, what numbers are on the spinner.

Zero, since there are infinitely more irrational numbers than rational numbers. Note that "zero probability" is not the same as "impossible" in this case. For more details, see the Wikipedia article on "Almost surely".

Although the magnitude of 12 times a complex number will be greater than 5 times the same complex number, complex numbers are not ordered in the same way that ordinary numbers are. So you cannot compare 12*(x+iy) and 5*(x+iy).

The probability that 2 people have the same number is 2 out of 10

The probability of rolling the same number six times on a standard die is (1 in 6)5 or 1 in 7776, or about 0.0001286. The reason the exponent above is five instead of six is that the probability of rolling "some" number on one die is 1, so you need to look at the probability of the other five dice matching the first die. It would not matter if you rolled one die six times, or six dice one time. The odds are the same.

A prime number times a prime number is a composite number. Since prime numbers, except for 2, are odd numbers, a prime number times a prime number is usually an odd number. It will only be an even number if one of the prime numbers is 2. A prime number times a prime number will be a number with four factors unless both prime numbers are the same, in which case it will be a square number with only three factors.

The first roll doesn't matter for probability, it just sets the number to be rolled by the other two. So: P(rolling the same number three times) = P(rolling a particular number)2 = (1/6)2 = 1/36

1 out of 20 this is because there are 20 numbers in total, and there is only one 7 in there. (Assuming that there is the same probability for each number to be chosen, and that 17 is excluded as an affirmative outcome)

The first number doesn't matter, just that the last three are the same as the first. P(rolling the same as the number before) = 1/6 P(rolling the same number as the first three times = (1/6)3 = 1/216

The probability of rolling the same number on five dice is (1/6)4, or about 0.0007716.

If the signs of both numbers are the same, the product will be positive. If the signs of the numbers are different, the product will be negative.

You have 4 possibilities (a 3, 4, 5, or 6), out of a total of 6. All numbers on a die are assumed to have the same probability. Therefore, your probability is 4/6, or 2/3.You have 4 possibilities (a 3, 4, 5, or 6), out of a total of 6. All numbers on a die are assumed to have the same probability. Therefore, your probability is 4/6, or 2/3.You have 4 possibilities (a 3, 4, 5, or 6), out of a total of 6. All numbers on a die are assumed to have the same probability. Therefore, your probability is 4/6, or 2/3.You have 4 possibilities (a 3, 4, 5, or 6), out of a total of 6. All numbers on a die are assumed to have the same probability. Therefore, your probability is 4/6, or 2/3.

To answer this problem you first see how many even and odd numbers there are. There are 3 odd and 3 even. so the fraction for even and odd is 3/6 so then in simplified form it is 1/2. If they ask to express the probability as a decimal number it would be .5 or.50

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