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Given a time-oriented spacetime $(M,g)$, a binary relation $\ll$ can be defined on this spacetime where $p \ll q$ for $p, q \in M$ if and only if there exists a time-like path connecting $p$ and $q$.

A $\ll$-isomorphism between the two time-oriented spacetimes $(M_1, g_1)$ and $(M_2, g_2)$ is a bijective map $\phi :M_1 \rightarrow M_2$ such that $\forall p, q \in M_1 $: $p\ll q$ if and only if $\phi(p) \ll \phi(q)$.

A spacetime is called chronological if and only if there exists no $p \in M$ where $p \ll p$.

A theorem due to Hawking, King, McCarthy and improved by Malament 1977 states that:

Let $\phi$ be a $\ll$-isomorphism between the time-oriented spacetimes $(M_1, g_1)$ and $(M_2, g_2)$. If $\phi$ is a homeomorphism, then it's a conformal isometry.

On the other hand, a theorem due to Malament states that:

Given the time-oriented $\ll$-isomorphic spacetimes $(M_1, g_1)$ and $(M_2, g_2)$, if the spacetimes are distinguishing(both past and future), then $\phi$ is a smooth conformal isometry.

This theorem means literally: the causal structure for distinguishing spacetimes alone, can determine the spacetime [always the pair $(M, g)$] up to a smooth conformal isometry!

Now given this context, take the spacetime of a spinning Cosmic String $(M, g)$, where $M$ is homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^4 - \mathbb{R}^2$ with its Euclidean subspace topology and $g$ is everywhere locally:

$$g= -(dt + a \, d \phi)^2 + d\rho^2 + \kappa^2 \rho^2 + d\phi^2 + dz^2 \ \text{where} \ \ a > 0$$

Obviousely this spacetime is not even chronological, let alone distinguishing!

Suppose the time-oriented spacetime $(N, h)$ is $\ll$-isomorphic with $(M, g)$, meaning that they have the same causal structure,

My question is:

Does there exist any non-trivial conformal isometry $(M, g)$ and $(N,h)$? Or in general what are the common topological features of $M$ and $N$?

In case such nontrivial conformal isometry does not exists, based on HKM theorem, one can safely argue that the manifold topology cannot be fixed by the causal structure.


PS: The topology assumed in HKM theorem is the path topology $\mathcal{P}$, which is strictly finer than the manifold topology $\mathcal{M}$: $\mathcal{M} \subsetneqq \mathcal{P}$.

Moreover the theorem 6 in the HKM paper assumes strong causality, which is unnecessary as shown by Malament 1977

Also trivially a $\mathcal{P}$-homeomorphism is trivially an $\mathcal{M}$-homeomorphism.

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  • $\begingroup$ Downvote without comment=unprofessional and irresponsible $\endgroup$ Commented May 13 at 15:59
  • $\begingroup$ Upvote without comment=flattering $\endgroup$ Commented May 13 at 19:28
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    $\begingroup$ I have doubts about how you quoted Hawking--King--McCarthy. The closest statement I finding in that paper is Theorem 6, but this assumes the mapping is a homeomorphism with respect to the path topology that they define, which is not the same as the manifold topology. Can you clarify with a more precise reference? $\endgroup$ Commented May 15 at 1:22
  • $\begingroup$ Moreover I used an indirect reference: philarchive.org/archive/WTHOON page 7. @WillieWong $\endgroup$ Commented May 15 at 10:30
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    $\begingroup$ The reverse implication doesn't hold, which is my problem with how you quoted the theorem. A manifold homeomorphism is not necessarily a $\mathcal{P}$-homeomorphism (precisely because the $\mathcal{P}$ topology is in general strictly finer). While I don't have a counterexample available, it is not clear to me that order preserving + manifold homeomorphic implies $\mathcal{P}$-homeomorphic. $\endgroup$ Commented May 16 at 1:42

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Regarding the title question: No, the topology cannot be recovered from the chronology relation for non-chronological spacetimes. For example, there are plenty of distinct Lorentzian manifolds for which every point chronologically precedes every other point.

For an example of the example, let $\mathbb R^{d+1}$ be Minkowski space and quotient by $\mathbb Z^{d+1}$ to get a Lorentzian torus $T^{d+1}$. In this manifold, every point chronologically precedes every other point. Moreover, for $d \geq 0$ this manfold has continuum-many points. So there is a bijection $T^{d+1} \to T^{d’+1}$ for any $d,d’$, and this bijection preserves the relation $\ll$. Nevertheless for $d \neq d’$ we have that $T^{d+1}$ is not conformally equivalent to $T^{d’+1}$.

For a more general example of the example, let $M^d$ be any Riemannian manifold whatsoever. Then the manifold $N^{d+1} := \mathbb R \times M^d$ has a natural Lorentzian metric which is the product metric, but with a minus sign inserted on the $\mathbb R$ (time) coordinate. In this metric, the point $(t,x)$ chronologically precedes the point $(t+1,y)$ whenever the Riemannian distance from $x$ to $y$ in $M$ is $<1$. You can quotient this by $\mathbb Z$ to get a Lorentzian metric on $S^1 \times M$. In this metric every point chronologically precedes every point in the same path component.

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  • $\begingroup$ What you are syaing is rather better read by my eyes as dimensional indeterminacy. As the two are tori still, topologically speaking, although not homeomorphic, but they're so upto an identification. Does that help to reformulate a more general answer? @Tim Campion $\endgroup$ Commented May 13 at 20:35
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    $\begingroup$ What? No. The fact that they don’t even have the same dimension indicates that they are even further from being conformally equivalent than you were hoping. Two manifolds of different dimension are never conformally equivalent. Conformal equivalence is a much, much finer equivalence relation than having the same dimension. $\endgroup$ Commented May 13 at 21:48
  • $\begingroup$ Anyway thanks alot for the answer. Do you think you can give the Cosmic String case a shot? How much its causal structure can tell us about the manifold topology. What are the constraints it imposes on then manifold topology? At least as much as you can extract. I know that the topological space is not unique, but there might be some general topological features in common between all such consistent possibilities. @Tim Campion $\endgroup$ Commented May 14 at 15:46
  • $\begingroup$ But this doesn't answer the question regarding the spinning Cosmic String. I really am just asking: knowing the causal structure of the spinning Cosmic String, what can be said about its manifold topology. That's what I really am concerned about. All the rest is just a pretext to get to the point. @Tim Campion $\endgroup$ Commented May 15 at 19:26
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    $\begingroup$ @BastamTajik I see, I’ve answered the title question but not the main question in the body of the text. I’m not particularly interested in thinking about the question in the body of the text right now, but maybe somebody else will be. You could help them out by giving a more precise reference for this cosmic string metric, or by defining the coordinates in which you’re expressing the metric. $\endgroup$ Commented May 15 at 20:52

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