We consider three sequences $(x_n),(y_n),(z_n)$, where $(x_n) \in \ell^1$ is positive and the other two sequences are merely assumed to be positive, i.e. $y_n,z_n \ge 0$ where $0<z_n<z_{n+1}$ is strictly monotone.
I wonder about the following:
Let us assume that $\langle (x_n),(y_n)\rangle_{\ell^2} <\infty$ and that $\lim_{\varepsilon \downarrow 0} \varepsilon \log(\sum_{n} e^{-\varepsilon y_n}) =0.$
The first property somehow tells us that $(y_n)$ does not grow too fast relative to $x_n$, the second property tells us that $(y_n)$ grows fast enough for this sum to be small such that the factor $\varepsilon$ wins over the log sum.
If we now assume that $\lim_{\varepsilon \downarrow 0} \varepsilon \log(\sum_{n} e^{-\varepsilon z_n}) >0,$ i.e. the $z_n$ grow not fast enough for the $\varepsilon$ to win against the log sum, does this implies that $$ \langle (x_n),(z_n) \rangle <\infty \text{ as well }?$$
The question is essentially whether gauging the growth rate by this limit, which shows in a way that $y_n$ grows faster than $z_n$, is enough to conclude that $$ \langle (x_n),(y_n)\rangle_{\ell^2} <\infty \Rightarrow \langle (x_n),(z_n) \rangle <\infty.$$