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Let $\mathcal{F}_N$ be the set of all strictly increasing sequences of positive integers. For every two $F_1, F_2\in\mathcal{F}_N$, if we use $\delta(F_1,F_2)$ to denote the first $n$-th coordinate where $F_1(n)\neq F_2(n)$, then $d(F_1, F_2) = \exp[-\delta(F_1, F_2)]$ defines a metric on the space $\mathcal{F}_N$. One can observe that $d$ is an ultra-metric because, for each $F_1, F_2, F_3\in\mathcal{F}_N$, $$ d(F_1, F_3)\leq \max\Big[ d(F_1, F_2), d(F_2, F_3) \Big]. $$ Now fix $r\in\big(\frac{1}{2}, 1\big)$. My questions are:

  1. Will there exists a finite set of positive integers $M$ such that $\sum_{i\in M}r^i = 1$? Does the existence of such a finite set depend on $r$?

  2. Notice that we can view $\mathcal{F}_N$ as the family of all infinite subset of $\mathbb{N}$ (viewing each element in $\mathcal{F}_N$ as a sequence is more compatible to the given metric). For the fix $r\in\big(\frac{1}{2}, 1\big)$, one can observe that the set $\Big\{ \sum_{i\in F}r^i\,\vert\, F\in\mathcal{F}_N \Big\}$ is bounded below by $0$ (which is also the infimum) and bounded above by $\frac{r}{1-r}$. Is the following function surjective? $$ S_r:\mathcal{F}_N\rightarrow \Big(0, \frac{r}{1-r}\Big], \quad F\mapsto \sum_{i\in F}r^i $$ In particular, I wonder, when part 1) is not true for all $r\in\big(\frac{1}{2}, 1\big)$, if it is true that, for each $r\in\big(\frac{1}{2}, 1\big)$, I can always find $F_r\in\mathcal{F}_N$ such that $S_r(F_r)=1$. One can easily check that $S_r$ is continuous for each $r\in\big(\frac{1}{2}, 1\big)$. If I instead let $\mathcal{F}_N$ be the set of all non-negative integers, then I suppose $S_{\frac{1}{n}}$ will be surjective for each $n\in\mathbb{N}$; however, under this assumption, I do not know if $S_r$ will be surjective even when $r\neq\frac{1}{n}$ for each $n\in\mathbb{N}$, but my current biggest concern is on the those two questions above.

Any hints or thoughts will be appreciated! The same question is posted in MS and I would like thank Ryszard Sszwarc for his help with this question. He proved that numbers that meet the condition in part 1) must be algebraic and irrational. However, for a fixed algebraic and irrational number, whether or not a necessary condition that guarantees the existence of such a finite set exists remain unclear.

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  • $\begingroup$ And if there is no $n$ such that $F_1(n)\neq F_2(n)$, $\delta=\infty$ and $d=0$? $\endgroup$
    – username
    Commented Nov 3, 2022 at 7:58
  • $\begingroup$ Yes. Perhaps I should state this as well. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 3, 2022 at 13:12

1 Answer 1

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For (1), I'm not sure you're going to find a better condition than "$r$ is an algebraic number which is the root of some polynomial with coefficients $0$ and $1$"; I certainly don't think there's an intrinsic necessary and sufficient condition there.

For (2), the answer is yes, the function is always surjective. You could prove this with a greedy algorithm. For a fixed $x \in (0, \frac{r}{1-r}]$, define $x_0 = x$, and for all $n > 0$, define $x_{n}$ to be $0$ if $x_{n-1} = 0$, and if $x_{n-1} > 0$, define $x_n = x_{n-1} - r^m$, where $m = m_n$ is the minimal positive integer for which $r^m \leq x_{n-1}$.

Since $m$ was minimal, $x_{n-1} < r^{m-1}$, and so $x_n < x_{n-1}(1-r)$. Therefore, $x_n \rightarrow 0$. This means that $x = \sum_n r^{m_n}$. Clearly $m_0 > 0$, since $x < 1$. So it remains only to check that the $m_n$ are strictly increasing. But this is easy; if $m_{n+1} \leq m_n$, then $x_{n-1} \geq r^{m_n}$ and $x_n = x_{n-1} - r^{m_n} \geq r^{m_{n+1}}$ , so $x_{n-1} \geq r^{m_n} + r^{m_{n+1}} \geq 2r^{m_n} \geq r^{m_n-1}$, contradicting minimality of $m_n$. Therefore $m_n$ is strictly increasing, and you have a representation $x = \sum_n r^{m_n}$.

By the way, this proof works even if there is a finite expansion, it will just end at that point (when $x_n = 0$).

Another point is that even when your (1) is true, i.e. $1$ has a finite expansion, you can still find an infinite expansion of $1$! This is because, if $1 = r^{n_1} + \ldots + r^{n_k}$, then $1 - r^{n_k} = r^{n_1} + \ldots + r^{n_{k-1}}$. But $1 + r^{n_k} + r^{2n_k} + r^{3n_k} + \ldots = \frac{1}{1 - r^{n-k}}$. Multiplying these yields

$1 = (r^{n_1} + \ldots + r^{n_{k-1}})(1 + r^{n_k} + r^{2n_k} + \ldots) = r^{n_1} + \ldots + r^{n_{k-1}} + r^{n_1 + n_k} + r^{n_2 + n_k} + \ldots + r^{n_{k-1} + n_k} + r^{n_1 + 2n_k} + r^{n_2 + 2n_k} + \ldots + r^{n_{k-1} + 2n_k} + \ldots$.

So, you don't have to have the clause "when (1) is not true"; for every $r \in (1/2, 1)$, $1$ can be written as $S_r(F)$ for some $F \in \mathcal{F}_N$.

Also, something you said is confusing; you said if you allow $0$ exponents, then $S_{1/n}$ would always be surjective, but this is clearly false. For instance, the range of $S_{1/3}$ would be the set of numbers with ternary expansion (including a possible $(1/3)^0 = 1$ term) containing only $0$s and $1$s, which is clearly a Cantor set and not an interval.

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  • $\begingroup$ Very nice answer! I have been searching for answers in other forums and am sorry for the late responses. But thank you for reminding me of this trick, the same one used in proving the Open Mapping Theorem, and I have never imagined it can be used here. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 7, 2022 at 17:37

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