1
$\begingroup$

Let $m = q^k n^2$ be an odd perfect number with special prime $q$ satisfying $q \equiv k \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ and $\gcd(q,n)=1$.

It is known that $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k),\sigma(n^2)) = \frac{(\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)))^2}{\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))}$$ and therefore that $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k),\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \frac{\sigma(n^2)}{q^k} \geq 3$$ if and only if $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))$.

Lastly, it is known that $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k),\sigma(n^2))=1$$ implies $k=1$.

Here is my:

QUESTION: Under what conditions is it true that $$\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))?$$

I know that the GCD equation is true, for example, when $\sigma(n^2) = q^k n$ (and therefore, $\sigma(q^k) = 2n$). Are there other conditions under which the GCD equation is true?

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Care to explain the downvote? $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 27, 2022 at 3:37

1 Answer 1

0
$\begingroup$

Let $p^s Q^2$ be an odd perfect number with special prime $p$ satisfying $p \equiv s \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ and $\gcd(p,Q)=1$.

I did some more digging on when the equations

$$\gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2)) = \gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s))$$ $$\gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2)) = \gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2))$$ $$\gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s)) = \gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2))$$

simultaneously hold. Note that we have the identity

$$\gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s)) \gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2)) = \left(\gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2))\right)^2.$$

Hence, when exactly one of the three equations above holds, then the other two equations follow.


In particular, note that $$\gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2)) = \gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s))$$

is equivalent to $$\frac{Q^2}{\sigma(p^s)/2} = \frac{\left(\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q)\right)^2}{\sigma(p^s)/2}$$

which, in turn, is equivalent to

$$Q = \gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q).$$

This last GCD equation holds if and only if $Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2$.


Furthermore, in particular, note that $$\gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2)) = \gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2))$$

is equivalent to

$$\left(\frac{Q}{\sigma(p^s)/2)}\right)\cdot\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q) = \frac{Q^2}{\sigma(p^s)/2}$$

which, in turn, is equivalent to

$$\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q) = Q.$$

This last GCD equation holds if and only if $Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2$.


Lastly, in particular, note that $$\gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s)) = \gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2))$$

is equivalent to $$\frac{\left(\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q)\right)^2}{\sigma(p^s)/2} = \left(\frac{Q}{\sigma(p^s)/2}\right)\cdot\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q)$$

which, in turn, is equivalent to

$$\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q) = Q.$$

This last GCD equation holds if and only if $Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2$.


Thus, if we set $$G = \gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s))$$ $$H = \gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2))$$ $$I = \gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2))$$

then we get the biconditional

$$G = H = I \iff Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2.$$

Of course, as a sanity check, when $\sigma(p^s) = 2Q$, then we obtain the conjunction

$$Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2$$

and

$$\sigma(p^s)/2 \mid Q,$$

which by Conjunction Elimination yields

$$Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2$$

and hence, that

$$G = H = I.$$

$\endgroup$
2
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ A suggestion: the huge parentheses might be easier to read with \big rather than \Bigg; for example, $\dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2), i(q)\bigr)}{i(q)}$ \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2), i(q)\bigr)}{i(q)} rather than $\dfrac{\gcd\Biggl(n\sigma(n^2), i(q)\Biggr)}{i(q)}$ \dfrac{\gcd\Biggl(n\sigma(n^2), i(q)\Biggr)}{i(q)}. $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Jul 27, 2022 at 0:35
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Thank you for your suggestion, @LSpice! Incorporating these changes in the post now. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 27, 2022 at 0:48

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .