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The short answer isLet NO, there are no more possible conditions under which $$\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$ other than$p^s Q^2$ be an odd perfect number with special prime $n = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))$$p$ satisfying $p \equiv s \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ and $\gcd(p,Q)=1$. (This follows from an unconditional proof for

I did some more digging on when the conditionequations

$$\gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2)) = \gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s))$$ $$n = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)).$$$$\gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2)) = \gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2))$$ See below$$\gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s)) = \gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2))$$

simultaneously hold.) Note that we have the identity


 

$$\gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s)) \gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2)) = \left(\gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2))\right)^2.$$

Proof:Hence, when exactly one of the three equations above holds, then the other two equations follow.

 

Consider $\gcd(q^k n, 1)=1$. This equation trivially holds.In particular, note that $$\gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2)) = \gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s))$$

Let $$i(q):=\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \dfrac{\sigma(n^2)}{q^k}.$$is equivalent to $$\frac{Q^2}{\sigma(p^s)/2} = \frac{\left(\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q)\right)^2}{\sigma(p^s)/2}$$

We obtain $$1 = \gcd(q^k n, 1) = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),i(q)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(\gcd(n\sigma(n^2),n^2),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$which, in turn, is equivalent to

We consider two cases:$$Q = \gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q).$$

Case 1: This last GCD equation holds if and only if $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$$Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2$.

 

If $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$Furthermore, then since it is known that $n^2 \nmid \sigma(n^2)$ and $\sigma(n^2) \nmid n$in particular, so that we have $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$ But we knownote that $$3 \leq \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = 1,$$ which$$\gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2)) = \gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2))$$

is a contradiction.equivalent to

Case 2: $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$$$\left(\frac{Q}{\sigma(p^s)/2)}\right)\cdot\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q) = \frac{Q^2}{\sigma(p^s)/2}$$

We now prove that, indeedwhich, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = n$ holds in general.turn, is equivalent to

Based from the results in this MSE question titled "On odd perfect numbers and a$$\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q) = Q.$$

This last GCD equation holds if and only if - Part V", we have the following proposition:$Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2$.

THEOREM: If $m = q^k n^2$ is an odd perfect number with special prime $q$, then $$\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))=\gcd(n^i,\sigma(n^2))$$ holds, where $i \geq 2$ is an integer.

 

From Case 1 aboveLastly, we have the equationin particular, note that $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$$$\gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s)) = \gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2))$$

This means that $$\gcd(I\cdot{n},\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$is equivalent to where $I = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))$.$$\frac{\left(\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q)\right)^2}{\sigma(p^s)/2} = \left(\frac{Q}{\sigma(p^s)/2}\right)\cdot\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q)$$

By the THEOREM abovewhich, we know that $I = n^j$ for some integerin turn, is equivalent to

$$\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q) = Q.$$

This last GCD equation holds if and only if $j \geq 1$$Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2$.

 

HoweverThus, if we know from the results of this preprint thatset $$I = \frac{n}{\sigma(q^k)/2}\cdot\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$$$G = \gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s))$$ $$H = \gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2))$$ $$I = \gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2))$$

We therefore have $$n^{j-1} = \frac{\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n)}{\sigma(q^k)/2}.$$then we get the biconditional

$$G = H = I \iff Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2.$$

SinceOf course, as a sanity check, when $j \geq 1$ is an integer$\sigma(p^s) = 2Q$, then we obtain the RHS is also an integer, so that $$\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid \gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$conjunction

But we know that $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) \mid \sigma(q^k)/2$$ by the definition of GCD.$$Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2$$

Hence, we do in fact have $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) = \sigma(q^k)/2$$ fromand

$$\sigma(p^s)/2 \mid Q,$$

which it follows thatby $j=1$.Conjunction Elimination yields

Consequently, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$$$Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2$$

and hence, which is equivalent to $\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid n$.that

$$G = H = I.$$

The short answer is NO, there are no more possible conditions under which $$\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$ other than $n = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))$. (This follows from an unconditional proof for the condition $$n = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)).$$ See below.)


 

Proof:

Consider $\gcd(q^k n, 1)=1$. This equation trivially holds.

Let $$i(q):=\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \dfrac{\sigma(n^2)}{q^k}.$$

We obtain $$1 = \gcd(q^k n, 1) = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),i(q)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(\gcd(n\sigma(n^2),n^2),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$

We consider two cases:

Case 1: $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$

If $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$, then since it is known that $n^2 \nmid \sigma(n^2)$ and $\sigma(n^2) \nmid n$, so that we have $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$ But we know that $$3 \leq \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = 1,$$ which is a contradiction.

Case 2: $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$

We now prove that, indeed, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = n$ holds in general.

Based from the results in this MSE question titled "On odd perfect numbers and a GCD - Part V", we have the following proposition:

THEOREM: If $m = q^k n^2$ is an odd perfect number with special prime $q$, then $$\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))=\gcd(n^i,\sigma(n^2))$$ holds, where $i \geq 2$ is an integer.

From Case 1 above, we have the equation $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$

This means that $$\gcd(I\cdot{n},\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$ where $I = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))$.

By the THEOREM above, we know that $I = n^j$ for some integer $j \geq 1$.

However, we know from the results of this preprint that $$I = \frac{n}{\sigma(q^k)/2}\cdot\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$

We therefore have $$n^{j-1} = \frac{\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n)}{\sigma(q^k)/2}.$$

Since $j \geq 1$ is an integer, then the RHS is also an integer, so that $$\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid \gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$

But we know that $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) \mid \sigma(q^k)/2$$ by the definition of GCD.

Hence, we do in fact have $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) = \sigma(q^k)/2$$ from which it follows that $j=1$.

Consequently, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$, which is equivalent to $\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid n$.

Let $p^s Q^2$ be an odd perfect number with special prime $p$ satisfying $p \equiv s \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ and $\gcd(p,Q)=1$.

I did some more digging on when the equations

$$\gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2)) = \gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s))$$ $$\gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2)) = \gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2))$$ $$\gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s)) = \gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2))$$

simultaneously hold. Note that we have the identity

$$\gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s)) \gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2)) = \left(\gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2))\right)^2.$$

Hence, when exactly one of the three equations above holds, then the other two equations follow.

 

In particular, note that $$\gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2)) = \gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s))$$

is equivalent to $$\frac{Q^2}{\sigma(p^s)/2} = \frac{\left(\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q)\right)^2}{\sigma(p^s)/2}$$

which, in turn, is equivalent to

$$Q = \gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q).$$

This last GCD equation holds if and only if $Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2$.

 

Furthermore, in particular, note that $$\gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2)) = \gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2))$$

is equivalent to

$$\left(\frac{Q}{\sigma(p^s)/2)}\right)\cdot\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q) = \frac{Q^2}{\sigma(p^s)/2}$$

which, in turn, is equivalent to

$$\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q) = Q.$$

This last GCD equation holds if and only if $Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2$.

 

Lastly, in particular, note that $$\gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s)) = \gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2))$$

is equivalent to $$\frac{\left(\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q)\right)^2}{\sigma(p^s)/2} = \left(\frac{Q}{\sigma(p^s)/2}\right)\cdot\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q)$$

which, in turn, is equivalent to

$$\gcd(\sigma(p^s)/2, Q) = Q.$$

This last GCD equation holds if and only if $Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2$.

 

Thus, if we set $$G = \gcd(\sigma(Q^2), \sigma(p^s))$$ $$H = \gcd(Q^2, \sigma(Q^2))$$ $$I = \gcd(Q, \sigma(Q^2))$$

then we get the biconditional

$$G = H = I \iff Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2.$$

Of course, as a sanity check, when $\sigma(p^s) = 2Q$, then we obtain the conjunction

$$Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2$$

and

$$\sigma(p^s)/2 \mid Q,$$

which by Conjunction Elimination yields

$$Q \mid \sigma(p^s)/2$$

and hence, that

$$G = H = I.$$

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The short answer is NO, there are no more possible conditions under which $$\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$ other than $n = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))$. (This follows from an unconditional proof for the condition $$n = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)).$$ See below.)


Proof:

Consider $\gcd(q^k n, 1)=1$. This equation trivially holds.

Let $$i(q):=\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \dfrac{\sigma(n^2)}{q^k}.$$

We obtain $$1 = \gcd(q^k n, 1) = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),i(q)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(\gcd(n\sigma(n^2),n^2),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$

We consider two cases:

Case 1: $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$

If $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$, then since it is known that $n^2 \nmid \sigma(n^2)$ and $\sigma(n^2) \nmid n$, so that we have $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$ But we know that $$3 \leq \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = 1,$$ which is a contradiction.

Case 2: $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$

We now prove that, indeed, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = n$ holds in general.

Based from the results in this MSE question titled "On odd perfect numbers and a GCD - Part V", we have the following proposition:

THEOREM: If $m = q^k n^2$ is an odd perfect number with special prime $q$, then $$\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))=\gcd(n^i,\sigma(n^2))$$ holds, where $i \geq 2$ is an integer.

From Case 1 above, we have the equation $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$

This means that $$\gcd(I\cdot{n},\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$ where $I = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))$.

By the THEOREM above, we know that $I = n^j$ for some integer $j \geq 1$.

However, we know from the results of this preprint that $$I = \frac{n}{\sigma(q^k)/2}\cdot\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$

We therefore have $$n^{j-1} = \frac{\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n)}{\sigma(q^k)/2}.$$

Since $j \geq 1$ is an integer, then the RHS is also an integer, so that $$\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid \gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$

But we know that $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) \mid \sigma(q^k)/2$$ by the definition of GCD.

Hence, we do in fact have $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) = \sigma(q^k)/2$$ from which it follows that $j=1$.

Consequently, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$, which is equivalent to $\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid n$.

The short answer is NO, there are no more possible conditions under which $$\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$ other than $n = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))$.


Proof:

Consider $\gcd(q^k n, 1)=1$. This equation trivially holds.

Let $$i(q):=\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \dfrac{\sigma(n^2)}{q^k}.$$

We obtain $$1 = \gcd(q^k n, 1) = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),i(q)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(\gcd(n\sigma(n^2),n^2),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$

We consider two cases:

Case 1: $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$

If $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$, then since it is known that $n^2 \nmid \sigma(n^2)$ and $\sigma(n^2) \nmid n$, so that we have $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$ But we know that $$3 \leq \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = 1,$$ which is a contradiction.

Case 2: $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$

We now prove that, indeed, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = n$ holds in general.

Based from the results in this MSE question titled "On odd perfect numbers and a GCD - Part V", we have the following proposition:

THEOREM: If $m = q^k n^2$ is an odd perfect number with special prime $q$, then $$\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))=\gcd(n^i,\sigma(n^2))$$ holds, where $i \geq 2$ is an integer.

From Case 1 above, we have the equation $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$

This means that $$\gcd(I\cdot{n},\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$ where $I = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))$.

By the THEOREM above, we know that $I = n^j$ for some integer $j \geq 1$.

However, we know from the results of this preprint that $$I = \frac{n}{\sigma(q^k)/2}\cdot\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$

We therefore have $$n^{j-1} = \frac{\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n)}{\sigma(q^k)/2}.$$

Since $j \geq 1$ is an integer, then the RHS is also an integer, so that $$\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid \gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$

But we know that $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) \mid \sigma(q^k)/2$$ by the definition of GCD.

Hence, we do in fact have $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) = \sigma(q^k)/2$$ from which it follows that $j=1$.

Consequently, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$, which is equivalent to $\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid n$.

The short answer is NO, there are no more possible conditions under which $$\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$ other than $n = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))$. (This follows from an unconditional proof for the condition $$n = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)).$$ See below.)


Proof:

Consider $\gcd(q^k n, 1)=1$. This equation trivially holds.

Let $$i(q):=\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \dfrac{\sigma(n^2)}{q^k}.$$

We obtain $$1 = \gcd(q^k n, 1) = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),i(q)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(\gcd(n\sigma(n^2),n^2),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$

We consider two cases:

Case 1: $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$

If $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$, then since it is known that $n^2 \nmid \sigma(n^2)$ and $\sigma(n^2) \nmid n$, so that we have $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$ But we know that $$3 \leq \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = 1,$$ which is a contradiction.

Case 2: $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$

We now prove that, indeed, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = n$ holds in general.

Based from the results in this MSE question titled "On odd perfect numbers and a GCD - Part V", we have the following proposition:

THEOREM: If $m = q^k n^2$ is an odd perfect number with special prime $q$, then $$\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))=\gcd(n^i,\sigma(n^2))$$ holds, where $i \geq 2$ is an integer.

From Case 1 above, we have the equation $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$

This means that $$\gcd(I\cdot{n},\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$ where $I = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))$.

By the THEOREM above, we know that $I = n^j$ for some integer $j \geq 1$.

However, we know from the results of this preprint that $$I = \frac{n}{\sigma(q^k)/2}\cdot\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$

We therefore have $$n^{j-1} = \frac{\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n)}{\sigma(q^k)/2}.$$

Since $j \geq 1$ is an integer, then the RHS is also an integer, so that $$\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid \gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$

But we know that $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) \mid \sigma(q^k)/2$$ by the definition of GCD.

Hence, we do in fact have $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) = \sigma(q^k)/2$$ from which it follows that $j=1$.

Consequently, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$, which is equivalent to $\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid n$.

changed the index $i$ to $j$ in the proof (to fix the minor error in the logic)
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The short answer is NO, there are no more possible conditions under which $$\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$ other than $n = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))$.


Proof:

Consider $\gcd(q^k n, 1)=1$. This equation trivially holds.

Let $$i(q):=\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \dfrac{\sigma(n^2)}{q^k}.$$

We obtain $$1 = \gcd(q^k n, 1) = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),i(q)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(\gcd(n\sigma(n^2),n^2),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$

We consider two cases:

Case 1: $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$

If $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$, then since it is known that $n^2 \nmid \sigma(n^2)$ and $\sigma(n^2) \nmid n$, so that we have $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$ But we know that $$3 \leq \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = 1,$$ which is a contradiction.

Case 2: $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$

We now prove that, indeed, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = n$ holds in general.

Based from the results in this MSE question titled "On odd perfect numbers and a GCD - Part V", we have the following proposition:

THEOREM: If $m = q^k n^2$ is an odd perfect number with special prime $q$, then $$\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))=\gcd(n^i,\sigma(n^2))$$ holds, where $i \geq 2$ is an integer.

From Case 1 above, we have the equation $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$

This means that $$\gcd(I\cdot{n},\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$ where $I = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))$.

By the THEOREM above, we know that $I = n^i$$I = n^j$ for some integer $i \geq 2$$j \geq 1$.

However, we know from the results of this preprint that $$I = \frac{n}{\sigma(q^k)/2}\cdot\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$

We therefore have $$n^{i-1} = \frac{\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n)}{\sigma(q^k)/2}.$$$$n^{j-1} = \frac{\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n)}{\sigma(q^k)/2}.$$

Since $i \geq 2$$j \geq 1$ is an integer, then the RHS is also an integer, so that $$\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid \gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$

But we know that $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) \mid \sigma(q^k)/2$$ by the definition of GCD.

Hence, we do in fact have $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) = \sigma(q^k)/2$$ from which it follows that $i=1$$j=1$.

Consequently, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$, which is equivalent to $\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid n$.

The short answer is NO, there are no more possible conditions under which $$\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$ other than $n = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))$.


Proof:

Consider $\gcd(q^k n, 1)=1$. This equation trivially holds.

Let $$i(q):=\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \dfrac{\sigma(n^2)}{q^k}.$$

We obtain $$1 = \gcd(q^k n, 1) = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),i(q)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(\gcd(n\sigma(n^2),n^2),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$

We consider two cases:

Case 1: $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$

If $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$, then since it is known that $n^2 \nmid \sigma(n^2)$ and $\sigma(n^2) \nmid n$, so that we have $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$ But we know that $$3 \leq \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = 1,$$ which is a contradiction.

Case 2: $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$

We now prove that, indeed, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = n$ holds in general.

Based from the results in this MSE question titled "On odd perfect numbers and a GCD - Part V", we have the following proposition:

THEOREM: If $m = q^k n^2$ is an odd perfect number with special prime $q$, then $$\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))=\gcd(n^i,\sigma(n^2))$$ holds, where $i \geq 2$ is an integer.

From Case 1 above, we have the equation $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$

This means that $$\gcd(I\cdot{n},\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$ where $I = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))$.

By the THEOREM above, we know that $I = n^i$ for some integer $i \geq 2$.

However, we know from the results of this preprint that $$I = \frac{n}{\sigma(q^k)/2}\cdot\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$

We therefore have $$n^{i-1} = \frac{\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n)}{\sigma(q^k)/2}.$$

Since $i \geq 2$ is an integer, then the RHS is also an integer, so that $$\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid \gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$

But we know that $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) \mid \sigma(q^k)/2$$ by the definition of GCD.

Hence, we do in fact have $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) = \sigma(q^k)/2$$ from which it follows that $i=1$.

Consequently, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$, which is equivalent to $\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid n$.

The short answer is NO, there are no more possible conditions under which $$\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$ other than $n = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))$.


Proof:

Consider $\gcd(q^k n, 1)=1$. This equation trivially holds.

Let $$i(q):=\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \dfrac{\sigma(n^2)}{q^k}.$$

We obtain $$1 = \gcd(q^k n, 1) = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),i(q)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\sigma(n^2),\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(\gcd(n\sigma(n^2),n^2),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)} = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$

We consider two cases:

Case 1: $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$

If $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=1$, then since it is known that $n^2 \nmid \sigma(n^2)$ and $\sigma(n^2) \nmid n$, so that we have $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$ But we know that $$3 \leq \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = 1,$$ which is a contradiction.

Case 2: $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$

We now prove that, indeed, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2)) = n$ holds in general.

Based from the results in this MSE question titled "On odd perfect numbers and a GCD - Part V", we have the following proposition:

THEOREM: If $m = q^k n^2$ is an odd perfect number with special prime $q$, then $$\gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2))=\gcd(n^i,\sigma(n^2))$$ holds, where $i \geq 2$ is an integer.

From Case 1 above, we have the equation $$1 = \dfrac{\gcd\bigl(n\gcd(\sigma(n^2),n),\sigma(n^2)\bigr)}{i(q)}.$$

This means that $$\gcd(I\cdot{n},\sigma(n^2)) = \gcd(n^2,\sigma(n^2)),$$ where $I = \gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))$.

By the THEOREM above, we know that $I = n^j$ for some integer $j \geq 1$.

However, we know from the results of this preprint that $$I = \frac{n}{\sigma(q^k)/2}\cdot\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$

We therefore have $$n^{j-1} = \frac{\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n)}{\sigma(q^k)/2}.$$

Since $j \geq 1$ is an integer, then the RHS is also an integer, so that $$\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid \gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n).$$

But we know that $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) \mid \sigma(q^k)/2$$ by the definition of GCD.

Hence, we do in fact have $$\gcd(\sigma(q^k)/2,n) = \sigma(q^k)/2$$ from which it follows that $j=1$.

Consequently, $\gcd(n,\sigma(n^2))=n$, which is equivalent to $\sigma(q^k)/2 \mid n$.

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