Let $\beta_1$ be a function defined by $$\beta_1(x)= \begin{cases} 0 & x \le 0\\ 1 & x >0 \end{cases} $$
Now we define $f(x)$ which is a bounded function on $[-1,1]$.
We need to how that $ f \in R(\beta_1)$ iff $f(0+)=f(0)$
Let us consider a partition $P_1$ on $[-1,\epsilon]$ then it is easy to see that $U(P_1,f,\beta_1)=0$ amd $L(P_1,f,\beta_1)=0$
Similarly on any partition $P_2$ on $[\epsilon,1]$ we see that $U(P_2,f,\beta_1)=0$ and $L(P_2,f,\beta_1)=0$.
Now, consider $[-\epsilon,\epsilon]$
$U(P_1,f,\beta_1)=\sup f(x)_{x \in [-\epsilon,\epsilon]}(\beta_1(\epsilon) - \beta_1(-\epsilon) = \sup(f(x))_{x \in [-\epsilon,\epsilon]}(-1) $ amd
$L(P_1,f,\beta_1)= \inf f(x)_{x \in [-\epsilon,\epsilon]}(\beta_1(\epsilon) - \beta_1(-\epsilon)=\inf(f(x))_{x \in [-\epsilon,\epsilon]}(1)$.
Then, by definition of Riemann-Stieltjes integral we see that,
$\sup(f(x))-\inf f(x))_{x \in [-\epsilon,\epsilon]}(1)< \epsilon$
Then $f(0) \le \sup(f(x))$ and also $-f(x+) \le -\inf f(x)$
Will I not be able to conclude that $\lim_{x \to 0+}f(x)=f(0)$?