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ThirstForMaths
  • Member for 3 years, 6 months
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Lives in Kenya.

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Prove that $f(0+)=f(0)$ if $f \in R(\beta_1)$ [closed]
Jun 25, 2021
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Show that there is no differentiable function $f :\Bbb R \to\Bbb R$ such that $f(0) = 1$ and $f'(x) ≥ (f(x))^2\space\forall x\in\Bbb R$