9
$\begingroup$

Let $G = \operatorname{GL}_2$, and let $V = L^2(Z(\mathbb A)G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A),\omega)$, for $\omega$ a character of the ideles $\mathbb A^{\ast}$, identified with a central character. For a character $\mu$ of $\mathbb A^{\ast}/\mathbb Q^{\ast}$ such that $\mu^2 = \omega$, let $\chi = \mu \circ \operatorname{det}$. Then $\chi$ is an element of $V$.

How does one see (or intuit) that $\chi$ should be orthogonal to all cusp forms in $V$? Recall a cusp form is an element $f \in V$ such that

$$\int\limits_{N(\mathbb A)/N(\mathbb Q)} f(ng) dn = 0$$

for almost all $g \in G(\mathbb A)$, where $P = TN$ is the usual Borel subgroup of $G$ with its Levi decomposition.

My idea was to take the usual maximal compact subgroup $K$ of $G(\mathbb A)$ and say that, just as we have $\int\limits_{G(\mathbb A)} = \int\limits_{N(\mathbb A)} \int\limits_{T(\mathbb A)} \int\limits_K$, we should also have something like

$$\int\limits_{Z(\mathbb A)G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A)} f(g) \overline{\chi(g)}dg = \int\limits_{N(\mathbb Q) \backslash N(\mathbb A)} \space \int\limits_{ Z(\mathbb A) T(\mathbb Q) \backslash T(\mathbb A)} \space \int\limits_{[ Z(\mathbb A) G(\mathbb Q) \cap K] \backslash K} f(ntk) \overline{\chi(ntk)} \space dk dt dn$$ which should come out to $0$, using the fact that $\chi(ng) = \chi(g)$ for all $n \in N(\mathbb A)$. The problem is, I don't know if the integration over $Z(\mathbb A)G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A)$ should decompose like this. I tried to prove this for some time, but I am not sure whether this step can be made sound. Is such a decomposition of measures ''legit?'' I would be grateful for any explanation or reference.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ You might want "linear characters" or something in the title. (Although I guess these are the only sensible characters in the adèlic case, in the local case we have characters also for non-1-dimensional representations.) $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Mar 18, 2021 at 16:12

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

For the second measure theoretic question, I don’t know the answer, but I think, for the first question about the orthogonality is resolved as follows:

We may assume that $\omega$ is unitary by tensoring a central character.

By the Gelfand-Piatetski-Shapiro theorem, the space of L^2 cusp forms is decomposed to a direct sum of irreducible unitary representations with finite multiplicities (e.g. use Corvallis, Borel-Jacquet, 2.2 and 4.3, Wallach real reductive groups I 1.6.6).

If $\pi$ is one of the irreducibles, then orthogonal projection from $\chi$ to $\pi$ is G-equivariant and not isomorphism, hence 0, by Schur’s lemma, so $\chi$ is orthogonal to L^2-cusp forms.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.