I'm reading James Arthur's notes on the trace formula and am confused on a point on pages 65 and 66. For $G$ a reductive group over $\mathbb Q$ we are going over the decomposition of the space $L^2(G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A))$. First, I'm a bit surprised we are not going modulo center or modulo $A_G(\mathbb R)^{\circ}$ and wonder if Arthur means this space to be left $G(\mathbb Q$)-invariant functions which are square integrable on $G(\mathbb Q) A_G(\mathbb R)^{\circ} \backslash G(\mathbb A)$, rather than on $G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A)$. If so, then $L^2(G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A)^1)$ would then be isomorphic to the subspace of functions in $L^2(G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A))$ which are moreover $A_G(\mathbb R)^{\circ}$-invariant.
Anyway, whatever is meant by $L^2(G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A))$, Arthur says it decomposes as a direct sum of subspaces $L^2_{\chi}(G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A))$, as $\chi$ runs through the cuspidal automorphic data. Here $\chi$ is an equivalence class of pairs $(P,\sigma)$, where $P = MN$ is a standard parabolic subgroup of $G$, and $\sigma$ is a cuspidal automorphic representation of $M(\mathbb A)^1$. Another pairs $(P',\sigma')$ is equivalent to $(P,\sigma)$ if there is a $w$ in the Weyl group such that $wMw^{-1} = M'$ and $w(\sigma) \cong \sigma'$ as representations of $M'(\mathbb A)^1$.
The space $L^2_{\chi}(G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A))$ is the closed subspace of $L^2(G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A))$ generated by pseudo-Eisenstein series
$$E \psi(g) = \sum\limits_{\delta \in P(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb Q)}\psi(\delta g)$$ where $\psi: N(\mathbb A)M(\mathbb Q)\backslash G(\mathbb A) \rightarrow \mathbb C$ is a function obtained by Mellin transform
$$\psi(x) = \int\limits_{\mathfrak a_P^{\ast}} e^{\langle \lambda + \rho_P, H_P(x) \rangle} \Psi(\lambda ,x) \space d \lambda$$
of a Paley-Weiner section of an induced space $\mathcal H_{P,\sigma}$ (definition on page 65). So, from
$$L^2(G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A)) = \bigoplus\limits_{\chi} L^2_{\chi}(G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A))$$
Arthur says we should use the obvious analogous decomposition
$$L^2(G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A)^1) = \bigoplus\limits_{\chi} L^2_{\chi}(G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A)^1).$$
My questions are:
1 . What is meant by $L^2_{\chi}(G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A)^1)$? Does this mean the closed subspace of $L^2(G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A)^1)$ generated by Pseudo-Eisenstein series $E\psi(g)|G(\mathbb A)^1$ which are restricted to $G(\mathbb A)^1$?
2 . For a much more basic question, what is meant by $L^2(G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A))$? Is it the plain meaning, of measurable $G(\mathbb Q)$-invariant functions on $G(\mathbb A)$ which are square-integrable on $G(\mathbb Q) \backslash G(\mathbb A)$? Or is it the space of measurable $G(\mathbb Q)$-invariant functions which are square-integrable on $G(\mathbb Q) A_G(\mathbb R)^{\circ} \backslash G(\mathbb A)$?
