# A conjecture regarding odd perfect numbers

(Note: I asked this question in MSE this June 2018 but did not receive any responses there. I have therefore cross-posted it here, hoping that it gets answered.)

Let $\sigma(z)$ denote the sum of the divisors of $z \in \mathbb{N}$, the set of positive integers. Denote the deficiency of $z$ by $D(z):=2z-\sigma(z)$, and the sum of the aliquot divisors of $z$ by $s(z):=\sigma(z)-z$.

If $n$ is odd and $\sigma(n)=2n$, then $n$ is said to be an odd perfect number. Euler proved that an odd perfect number, if one exists, must have the form $n = p^k m^2$, where $p$ is the special / Euler prime satisfying $p \equiv k \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ and $\gcd(p,m)=1$.

Starting from the fundamental equality $$\frac{\sigma(m^2)}{p^k} = \frac{2m^2}{\sigma(p^k)}$$ one can derive $$\frac{\sigma(m^2)}{p^k} = \frac{2m^2}{\sigma(p^k)} = \gcd(m^2, \sigma(m^2))$$ so that we ultimately have $$\frac{D(m^2)}{s(p^k)} = \frac{2m^2 - \sigma(m^2)}{\sigma(p^k) - p^k} = \gcd(m^2, \sigma(m^2))$$ and $$\frac{s(m^2)}{D(p^k)/2} = \frac{\sigma(m^2) - m^2}{p^k - \frac{\sigma(p^k)}{2}} = \gcd(m^2, \sigma(m^2)),$$ whereby we obtain $$\frac{D(p^k)D(m^2)}{s(p^k)s(m^2)} = 2.$$ Note that we also have (Equation A) $$\frac{2D(m^2)s(m^2)}{D(p^k)s(p^k)} = \bigg(\gcd(m^2, \sigma(m^2))\bigg)^2.$$ Lastly, notice that we can easily get $$\sigma(p^k) \equiv k + 1 \equiv 2 \pmod 4$$ so that it remains to consider the possible equivalence classes for $\sigma(m^2)$ modulo $4$. Since $\sigma(m^2)$ is odd, we only need to consider two.

Here is my question:

Which equivalence class of $\sigma(m^2)$ modulo $4$ makes Equation A untenable?

I know that the answer must somehow depend on the equivalence class of $p$ and $k$ modulo $8$, but as I only know that $p \equiv k \equiv 1 \pmod 4$, I am stuck.

UPDATED September 19 2018 (Manila time) After considering various cases, I think I am able to prove that:

1. If $p \equiv k \equiv 1 \pmod 8$, then $\sigma(m^2) \equiv 3 \pmod 4$ is impossible.
2. If $p \equiv 1 \pmod 8$ and $k \equiv 5 \pmod 8$, then $\sigma(m^2) \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ is impossible.
3. If $p \equiv 5 \pmod 8$ and $k \equiv 1 \pmod 8$, then $\sigma(m^2) \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ is impossible.
4. If $p \equiv k \equiv 5 \pmod 8$, then $\sigma(m^2) \equiv 3 \pmod 4$ is impossible.
• A similar investigation off this hyperlink reports that $p \equiv m^2 \equiv 5 \pmod {10}$ does not hold. – Arnie Bebita-Dris Sep 19 '18 at 9:15
• That $p = 5$ and $k = 5$ is impossible is proved in page $4$ of the article titled "ON ODD PERFECT NUMBERS AND EVEN 3-PERFECT NUMBERS", by Cohen and Sorli. – Arnie Bebita-Dris Sep 19 '18 at 9:20

Let $$n=\pi^{\alpha} M^2$$ be an odd $$2$$-perfect number, with $$\pi$$ prime, $$\gcd(\pi,M)=1$$, and $$\pi \equiv \alpha \equiv \pmod 4$$. Then $$\sigma(M^2) \equiv 1 \pmod 4 \iff \pi \equiv \alpha \pmod 8,$$ $$\sigma(M^2) \equiv 3 \pmod 4 \iff \pi \equiv \alpha + 4 \pmod 8.$$