Disclaimer : this is a crosspost from MSE, as the question got one upvote but no comment or answer whatsoever.
Assuming Goldbach's conjecture, let's denote by $r_{ 0}(n):=\inf\{r\geq 0,(n−r,n+r)\in\mathbb{P}^{2}\} $ . Then Cramer's model allows to write that the probability $ P((n−k,n+k)\in\mathbb{P}^{2})=\dfrac{c_{k}}{\log^{2}n} $ and $ r_{0}(n)=\inf\{m,\sum_{k=0}^{m}\dfrac{c_{k}}{log^{2}n}≥1\} $ .
I have two questions :
1) Would a proof that $ \forall k, c_{k}>0 $ entail that $ r_{0}(n)=O(\log^{2}n) $ ?
2) Building on the answer to Upper and lower bounds of sequences whose product of terms is asymptotically equal to their arithmetic mean, would an affirmative answer to 1) imply that the involved constant in $ O(\log^{2}n) $ actually equals $ 1 $?