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Consider the real Lie group $SO(p,q)$ (I believe that it happens to be a linearly reductive algebraic group over $\mathbb{R}$, if that's relevant). Also, if relevant, I'm mostly interested in the (Lorentzian) $p=1$ case. I'm also interested in the same question when $SO(p,q)$ is replaced by $O(p,q)$, but I suspect that the answers are similar.

Let $V$ be a finite dimensional representation of $SO(p,q)$. Is it true that the scalar $SO(p,q)$-invariant polynomials on $V$ separate the closed $SO(p,q)$-orbits on $V$?

I know that in general not all orbits (which are not necessarily closed) can be separated by polynomial invariants. But some results from geometric invariant theory do show that the closure of any orbit contains a unique closed orbit [Richardson & Solodowy (1990) JLMS 42 409-429]. So it's a given that any continuous (let alone polynomial) scalar invariant will not separate a non-closed orbit from the closed one in its closure. But there might still be hope to separate the closed orbits themselves.

What I already know is that the polynomial invariants do separate the closed orbits of the complexified representation $V\otimes \mathbb{C}$ of $SO(p,q;\mathbb{C}) \cong SO(p+q;\mathbb{C})$ and that the polynomial invariants of the $SO(p,q)$ representation are equivalent to the polynomial invariants of the $SO(p+q;\mathbb{C})$ representation. However, when we restrict to the smaller real group, the number of orbits may increase and the separation by polynomials is no longer obvious.

For instance, when $p=1$, the further restriction to the so called orthochronous subgroup $SO^{\uparrow}(1,q) \subset SO(1,q)$ does break polynomial separability already in the fundamental vector representation. In the language of special relativity, polynomial invariants can recognize whether vectors are timelike or spacelike, but cannot distinguish between future- and past-pointing timelike vectors. On the other hand, orthochronous transformations are precisely those that are not allowed to exchange future- and past-pointing timelike vectors. On the other hand, I do hope that problem does not occur for the slightly larger groups $SO(1,q)$ and $O(1,q)$.

Update: Friedrich Knop has answered the bulk of my question, based on the following observation:

But then there are also the real points of the algebraic group orbit $Gv$. They consist of all vectors of $V$ which can be obtained from $v$ by an element of the complex group $G(\mathbb{C})$. Hence $(Gv)(\mathbb{R})=G(\mathbb{C})v\cap V$. The latter are sometimes called the stable orbits.

The point is now that an invariant $f$ can only separate stable orbits. This is because $G(\mathbb{R})$-invariance implies $G$-invariance. Moreover, any two closed stable orbits can be separated by an invariant.

I'm now looking for a specific reference that discusses this fact and its proof.

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    $\begingroup$ The problem with orthochronous subgroup $H$ is that it is not an algebraic group (or more precisely, there is no algebraic group whose $\Bbb{R}$-points coincide with $H$). It is a general fact from invariant theory that for algebraic groups, invariants separate closed orbits, even over a field that is not algebraically closed. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 26, 2017 at 23:12
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    $\begingroup$ @VictorProtsak, that's good news, thanks! Could you point me to a reference of this "general fact"? I don't know the relevant literature very well, so I've not been able to locate it yet? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 26, 2017 at 23:51
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    $\begingroup$ I am not sure what standard references on GIT are there --- hopefully, on of the experts can come along and give you a good response. It is mentioned in Vingberg and Popov's article on invariant theory in Algebraic Geometry IV (vol 55 of VINITI Sovremennye problemy matematiki. Fundamentalnye napravleniya = Springer encyclopaedia of mathematics). $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 27, 2017 at 5:09
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    $\begingroup$ Over $\Bbb{R}$, there is a quick and dirty way to prove it: given two closed orbits $A\ne B$, find a polynomial $p$ that vanishes on $A$ and is non-zero on $B$. Squaring if necessary, it can be made non-negative on $B$ and positive in at least one point. Applying the Reynolds operator (projection onto invariant polynomials) to $p$ results in an invariant polynomial $q$ that is zero on $A$ and non-zero on $B$ (non-negative and positive somewhere). So $q$ separates $A$ and $B$. In fact, this establishes separation by invariant polynomials for any disjoint Zariski closed invariant subsets. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 27, 2017 at 5:16
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    $\begingroup$ @VictorProtsak, thanks for the clarification. Unfortunately, I have trouble locating this result in Vinberg-Popov. Could you refer me to a particular page/section (the Russian version is fine)? Also, I have a doubt about your quick argument. It works only if you know that the Reynolds operator somehow preserves positivity. This is true for compact groups, where you simply integrate with respect to the Haar measure on the group. But for non-compact groups you can't simply integrate, so this property is not so obvious. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 27, 2017 at 8:42

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The group $SO(p,q)$ is not per se an algebraic group. Rather there is an algebraic group $G$ such that $SO(p,q)=G(\mathbb R)$ is its group of real points. The main point is that also $G(\mathbb C)$ is defined which leads to two different concepts of orbits. First, there are the orbits $G(\mathbb R)v$ which you are probably after.

But then there are also the real points of the algebraic group orbit $Gv$. They consist of all vectors of $V$ which can be obtained from $v$ by an element of the complex group $G(\mathbb C)$. Hence $(Gv)(\mathbb R)=G(\mathbb C)v\cap V$. The latter are sometimes called the stable orbits.

The point is now that an invariant $f$ can only separate stable orbits. This is because $G(\mathbb R)$-invariance implies $G$-invariance. Moreover, any two closed stable orbits can be separated by an invariant.

The stable orbit is always a finite union of open $G(\mathbb R)$-orbits and these cannot be separated by invariants anymore. The good news is that an orbit $G(\mathbb R)v$ is (Hausdorff-)closed iff the associated stable orbit is (Hausdorff-)closed iff $Gv$ is (Zariski-)closed. This follows, e.g., form a theorem of Kempf on the existence of optimal $1$-parameter subgroups.

Now back to your real question: is it possible to make all closed $G(\mathbb R)$-orbits stable by enlarging the group, like from $SO^{\uparrow}(1,q)$ to $SO(1,q)$? This works in some cases but in general it is doomed to fail.

Example: Take the group $G(\mathbb R)=SO(1,q)$, $q\ge1$ acting on $\mathbb R^{1+q}=\mathbb R\mathbf e_0\oplus\mathbb R\mathbf e_1\oplus\ldots\oplus\mathbb R\mathbf e_q$. Put $V=S^2(\mathbb R^{1+q})$. The transformation $(x_0,x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_q)\mapsto(ix_1,ix_0,x_2,\ldots,x_q)$ is in $G(\mathbb C)$ and maps $v_1=\mathbf e_0^2$ to $v_2=-\mathbf e_1^2$. Thus $v_1$ and $v_2$ cannot be separated by an invariant but their $G(\mathbf R)$-orbits are closed and different (one is timelike the other spacelike).

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you very much for the clear answer and the example! I have seen a couple of times the statement that a "stable orbit is always a finite union of open G(R)-orbits", but without a precise reference to where a proof and a more detailed discussion could be found. I guess it's so well-known (except to me!) that people don't bother with that. Could you suggest where I could find it? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 27, 2017 at 22:55
  • $\begingroup$ I did not succeed to find a reference yet. The statement is easy to show, though: Let $X:=Gv$. Then $Lie G(\mathbb C)\to T_vX(\mathbb C)$ is the complexification of $Lie G(\mathbb R)\to T_vX(\mathbb R)$. Since the former is surjective the second is so, as well. This implies that $G(\mathbb R)v$ is open in $X(\mathbb R)$. Since this works for any $v\in X(\mathbb R)$ all orbits are open. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 28, 2017 at 14:42
  • $\begingroup$ thanks for looking! I did find a bare statement of this fact in Prop 2.3 of Borel & Harish-Chandra's Ann. Math. v.75 pp.485-535, but without proof and no specific pointer into the several hundred pages of material on invariant theory that they referenced as background! Having a clear proof would be helpful in figuring out ho to count the actual orbits within a stable orbit. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 28, 2017 at 16:22
  • $\begingroup$ (much later) Silly me. The statement in Borel & Harish-Chandra was immediately followed by a proof. It's just that paper didn't clearly mark where its proofs start and end. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 19 at 8:08

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