Let $X$ be a configuration space and $L: TX \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ a Lagrangian. Then I want to show that the Lagrangian flow $F^t(x(0),x'(0)) = (x(t),x'(t))$ preserves the symplectic form just like the Hamiltonian flow does.
My idea was to use the Euler Lagrange equations.
So let $F^t(x(0) + \varepsilon \xi(0),x'(0)+ \varepsilon \xi'(0)) = (x_{\varepsilon}(t),x'_{\varepsilon}(t))$ be the flow of the Euler Lagrange equations.
Then we have after the usual integration by parts trick that $$dS_t(x(0),x'(0))(\xi(0),\xi'(0)) := d_{\varepsilon}|_{\varepsilon=0} \int_0^t L(x_{\varepsilon}(\tau),x'_{\varepsilon}(\tau)) d\tau = \sum_{k=1}^{n} \partial_2L(F^\tau((x(0),x'(0))) \xi_k(\tau)|_0^t.$$
Note, that here the Euler Lagrange equation vanishes due to the property of the flow being a solution to the equations for all times.
This last equation almost looks like $dS_t = (F^t)^* \theta - \theta,$ where $\theta = \sum_{k=1}^{n} (\partial_2 L)_k dx^k$ which would give us of course the result, because then $0=d(dS_t) = (F^t)^* \omega - \omega$ by the usual commutation of the pullback with the exterior derivative.
For this we would need $(F^t)^*\omega(x(0),x'(0))(\xi(0),\xi'(0)) = \sum_{k=1}^{n} \partial_{x_k'(0)} L(F^t(x(0),x'(0)))\xi_k(t)$ holds which is only the case if this $\xi(t)= dF^t_{x,x'}(\xi(0),\xi'(0))$ according to my notation above, but I don't see that this equality holds.