1
$\begingroup$

Specificaly:

  • Does convergence in $L^{\frac{1}{2}}$ imply weak $L^2$ convergence?

  • Having a limit in $L^{\frac{1}{2}}$ topology and a limit in weak $L^2$ topology whether these are always equal? If not, what additional assumption would enable the conclusion?

Generally:

  • Whether strong $L^q$ topology is finer (stronger) than a weak $L^p$ topology for some $q<p$?
Improve this question
$\endgroup$

0

Reset to default

You must log in to answer this question.