Let $z(n+1)=Bz(n)+\xi(n+1)$ be an $N$-dimensional linear dynamical system with $\left(\xi(n)\right)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ being i.i.d. with $\xi(n)\sim\mathcal{N}(0,\Sigma_{\xi})$.
Assumptions: a) The covariance matrix $\Sigma_{\xi}$ is full-rank (so that the support of the distribution of $\xi(n)$ is absolutely continuous w.r.t. Lebesgue); b) $\xi\left(n+1\right)$ is independent of $z(n)$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$; c) the dynamical system is stable, i.e., the spectral radius of the matrix $B\in\mathbb{R}^{N\times N}$ is smaller than $1$, $\rho(B)<1$; d) the process $\left(z(n)\right)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ is initialized at the invariant distribution.
Define $R_k\overset{\Delta}=\mathbb{E}\left[z(n+k)z(n)^{\top}\right]$ as the $k$-lag moment associated with the process $\left(z(n)\right)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$.
Define its empirical counterpart: $\widehat{R}_k(m)=\frac{1}{m}\sum_{i=1}^m z(i+k)z(i)^{\top}$.
Question.[Strong law] Is it true that under the discussed assumptions, we have
$$\widehat{R}_k(m)\overset{m\rightarrow \infty}\longrightarrow R_k,$$
for all $k<\infty$, almost surely?
Under these assumptions, the process $\left(z(n)\right)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ is geometrically ergodic -- in particular, its distribution converges to the invariant distribution w.r.t. the total variation norm.
A full proof or any reference would be greatly appreciated.