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Aug 21, 2023 at 0:40 comment added JGWang In my post, the $T$ defined by (R1) is ergodic, than for all measurable(and integrable) functional, $\pi_t$ of $\xi$, $(1/n)\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\pi_t(T^k(\xi))\to\int\pi_t(\xi)d\mu$ is ture. By the way, if you have other problem, you could give a new post, because it is not convenient discussion here.
Aug 21, 2023 at 0:32 comment added JGWang In my post, the $T$ defined by (R1) is ergodic, than for all measurable(and integrable) functional, $\pi_t$ of $\xi$, $(1/n)\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\pi_t(T^k(\xi))\to\int\pi_t(\xi)d\mu$.
Aug 20, 2023 at 10:40 comment added Augusto Santos Just to confirm: The idea would be to resort to Birkhoff's Theorem to establish convergence, correct? Remark that $T$ maps sample paths into sample paths (endowed with the product Lebesgue). If we choose $\pi_t$ to be the projection map, it returns the value of the process at time $t$, then Birkhoff's would imply $(1/n)\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \pi_t(T^k (w)) \overset{a.s.}\longrightarrow \int \pi_t d\mu = 0$, where $w$ is a centered process whose distribution is kept invariant under the shift $T$ and $\mu$ is Lebesgue. Is that the idea?
Aug 20, 2023 at 9:51 comment added JGWang Thank you for your upvote. Also, you are right, map $T$ is ergodic.
Aug 20, 2023 at 8:49 comment added Augusto Santos I do not have the book with me, but I believe the map $T$ that you are referring to is the (one-lag) time shift map (which is ergodic, indeed)? I see, let me think about (+1 upvote).
Aug 20, 2023 at 1:46 comment added JGWang @AugustoSantos Please see the added Remark.
Aug 20, 2023 at 1:44 history edited JGWang CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 19, 2023 at 4:06 comment added Augusto Santos JGWang, why is $(y(i))_{i\in\mathbb{N}}$ ergodic?
Aug 19, 2023 at 1:01 history edited JGWang CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 19, 2023 at 0:54 comment added JGWang @AugustoSantos Thank you for your reply. I rewrite last several lines. Welcome to propose any question about this post.
Aug 19, 2023 at 0:43 history edited JGWang CC BY-SA 4.0
rewrite the last several lines.
Aug 18, 2023 at 11:19 comment added Augusto Santos JGWang, thank you. Yes, the process is ergodic (and its sample mean converge almost surely). More concretely, my question is how to prove (or specific reference) that the empirical lag-moments converge almost surely to the limit covariances. Thanks again.
Aug 18, 2023 at 9:06 history answered JGWang CC BY-SA 4.0