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Let $I=(0,1)$ and let $C>1$ be a constant. Let $L^2(I)$ and $H^1(I)$ be the standard Sobolev spaces on $I$. Suppose that $U$ is a subspace of $H^1(I)$ with the additional property that: $$ \| u\|_{H^1(I)} \leq C \|u\|_{L^2(I)}\quad \forall\, u\in U.$$ By compact embedding of $H^1(I)\subset L^2(I)$, it is trivial to see that $U$ must be finite dimensional (note here that the fact that $U$ is a subspace is vital).

My question is whether one can put an explicit bound on the dimension of $U$ in terms of the constant $C$.

Thanks,

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    $\begingroup$ Please specify the norms in both spaces, the answer certainly depends on them. I guess which is norm is used in L^2, but in H^1 there are different choices. For the most common the question is trivial, since it includes $L^2$ norm as a summand $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 8, 2023 at 13:40
  • $\begingroup$ Sorry about this there was a bad misprint in the question @FedorPetrov. I have edited the question now. Thanks $\endgroup$
    – Ali
    Commented Mar 8, 2023 at 13:52
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    $\begingroup$ The supremum of the dimension is the number of the eigenvakues of the Neumann Laplacian which are less than or equal to $C^2$, that is $\approx C$. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 8, 2023 at 14:40

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Just use the Wirtinger's inequality that says that if $u=0$ at the center of an interval $I\subset \mathbb R$, then $\int_I|u|^2\le (|I|/\pi)^2\int_I|u'|^2$. Thus, if the dimension is $>n$, we can create a function that vanishes at the centers of $n$ subintervals of the interval $(0,1)$ of length $1/n$ and have $\|u\|_{L^2}\le \frac 1{\pi n}\|u'\|_{L^2}$, so we must have $\pi n\le C$. On the other hand, we can take trigonometric polynomials $f(x)=\sum_{|k|\le N}c_ke^{2\pi i k x}$ and observe that for them $\|f'\|_{L^2}\le 2\pi N\|f\|_{L^2}$ and the dimension is $2N+1$, so the bound is tight if we use the norm of the derivative alone. Including the norm of the function into the definition of $H^1$ norm changes the answer by $O(1)$ (and brings it down), so the inequality $\rm{dim\,}U\le \frac{C}\pi+1$ still holds and is nearly the best possible one. That is, of course, in a perfect alignment with Giorgio's comment, but this case is simple enough to do it without formally invoking the spectral theory for the Laplacian.

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  • $\begingroup$ Any clue about my question mathoverflow.net/q/434486/121665 ? If you don't know the answer nobody will know. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 9, 2023 at 0:56
  • $\begingroup$ Nice. Instead I expand in a Fourier series of cosines and choose a function in $U$ orthogonal to $\cos (kx), k=0, \dots n-1$, if the dimension of $U$ is bigger than n. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 12, 2023 at 11:27

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