Consider the following lemma with proof from Takesaki's book "Theory of operator algebra I" (p121):
It appears to me that Takesaki claims at the end of the proof that $\pi(A)_1$ is $\sigma$-weakly dense in $(\pi(A)'')_1$. Of course, this should somehow follow from the Kaplansky density theorem. However, don't we need that the representation $\pi$ is non-degenerate for this? In that case, $\pi(A)$ is a non-degenerate $*$-algebra and thus its bicommutant is its $\sigma$-weak closure, so $\pi(A)$ is $\sigma$-weakly dense in $\pi(A)''$ and then $\pi(A)_1$ is also $\sigma$-weakly dense in $(\pi(A)'')_1$ by the Kaplansky density theorem. So concretely my question is: do we need to assume that $\pi: A \to B(H)$ is non-degenerate, i.e. that $\pi(A)H$ is dense in $H$? Thanks in advance for any help/comment/remark!