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EDIT. I've just noticed a thread from 2011 in the "Related" column on the right (click me), where a closely related question is being discussed (the main difference seems to be that, in ...

Descartes, Frenicle, and subsequently Sorli, conjectured that $k = 1$, if $N = {q^k}{n^2}$ is an odd perfect number given in Eulerian form (i.e., $q$ is prime with $q \equiv k \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ and $\...

Does the following approach (or something near it) exist in the number theory literature? I will provide some motivation for $\omega(p^n - 1)$ as $n \rightarrow \infty$ and for this question. First, ...