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Is the Fourier multiplier $\mathcal F(G(-\hbar^2 \Delta)\psi)(p) = G(|p|^2)\hat \psi(p)$ justified for any real function $G$?
I am confused about a claim asserted in the paper "Higher Order Schrodinger Equations" published in IOP Science. The authors claim that a Fourier multiplier identity
$$
\mathcal F(G(-\hbar^2 ...
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