Skip to main content

All Questions

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
6 votes
1 answer
273 views

Commutative/ symmetric second covariant derivative

Consider a smooth manifold $M$ together with an affine connection (or covariant derivative) $\nabla$ on the tangent bundle $TM$. Is it possible to have an affine connection, possibly with non-zero ...
Khaled T.'s user avatar
7 votes
1 answer
387 views

Torsion-free Cartan connections

Let $M$ a differentiable manifold and $H\subset G$ a Lie group with a closed subgroup such that $G/H$ is connected. A $H\subset G$-Cartan connection on $M$ can be defined by A principal $G$-bundle on ...
jpdm's user avatar
  • 141
6 votes
3 answers
1k views

Why torsion is only defined for linear connection on TM?

The concept of curvature is defined for any linear connection on any vector bundle $E \to M$, but the concept of torsion is only defined for connection on the tangent bundle $TM$ of a manifold $M^n$, ...
ychemama's user avatar
  • 1,346
23 votes
4 answers
5k views

Why is it important that partial derivatives commute?

I am asking this in the context of differential geometry (specifically Riemannian). When the Levi-Civita Connection is defined, we require that the torsion tensor is 0, which in local coordinates ...
R S's user avatar
  • 995
3 votes
2 answers
2k views

Interpretation of Curvature and Torsion

Dear all, When dealing with General Relativity one uses the Levi-Civita connection with is torsion-free. Thus the commutator of the covariant derivatives yields $[\nabla_\mu,\nabla_\nu]V^\rho = R_{\...
Dox's user avatar
  • 690
29 votes
4 answers
4k views

Rolling without slipping interpretation of torsion

This is, in a sense, a follow up to this question. Hehl and Obukhov try to give an intuitive description of torsion. I am confused about their description. I am looking at the following paragraph on ...
David E Speyer's user avatar