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15 votes
0 answers
244 views

Natural examples of Borel surjections without right inverse

As discussed in this question, in general a Borel surjection $f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ may not have a Borel right inverse, namely a $g$ such that $f\circ g=id$, although there is always a ...
183orbco3's user avatar
  • 623
10 votes
1 answer
255 views

How much of second-order arithmetic do you need for $\mathbf{\Sigma}^1_1$-determinacy to give you countable transitive models of $\mathsf{ZFC}$?

This is in some sense a follow-up to this question. The answer there says that over $\mathsf{Z}_2$ (second-order arithmetic), (boldface) $\mathbf{\Sigma}^1_1$-determinacy is enough to entail the ...
James E Hanson's user avatar
7 votes
1 answer
321 views

Strength of Borel determinacy

In this blog post by Gowers on Borel determinacy, Andres Caicedo says the following in a comment (slightly rephrased). Let $\mathsf{ZFC^-}$ be $\mathsf{ZFC}$ without power set and $\mathsf{ZC^-}$ be $...
new account's user avatar
13 votes
1 answer
524 views

How much determinacy do you need for second order arithmetic to be as strong as ZFC?

From Wikipedia (I couldn't find the original source): $\text{ZFC} + \{\text{there are $n$ Woodin cardinals: $n$ is a natural number}\}$ is conservative over $\text{Z}_2$ with projective determinacy. ...
Christopher King's user avatar
6 votes
0 answers
117 views

Reverse mathematics of Banach-Mazur games

Given $\mathcal{A}\subseteq\omega^\omega$, the Banach-Mazur game with payoff set $\mathcal{A}$ consists of players $1$ and $2$ alternately playing nonempty finite strings of naturals with player $1$ ...
Noah Schweber's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
184 views

Detecting comprehension topologically

This question basically follows this earlier question of mine but shifting from standard systems of nonstandard models of $PA$ to $\omega$-models of $RCA_0$. For $X$ a Turing ideal we get the map $c_X$...
Noah Schweber's user avatar
13 votes
1 answer
616 views

reverse mathematics of the Lebesgue measurability of analytic sets

Can the fact that all analytic sets are Lebesgue measurable be proven in $Z_2$, or in some weak subsystem such as $\Pi^1_1\text{-CA}_0$? Conversely, can certain set existence axioms be derived from ...
Alex Mennen's user avatar
  • 2,130
5 votes
1 answer
292 views

A game with boldface strength

This is a problem which has been bothering me for a while now; it doesn't seem inherently too hard, but I haven't been able to make any real headway, so I'm putting it out in the open since at this ...
Noah Schweber's user avatar
6 votes
1 answer
259 views

Degree of unsolvability of finding a open approximation to a Borel set, given its Borel code

It is well known that every Borel set has the property of Baire. That is, for every Borel set $B$, there is an open set $U$ and a sequence of dense open sets $D_n$ such that for every $x\in \cap_n ...
Linda Brown Westrick's user avatar
15 votes
1 answer
1k views

Higher recursion theory and reverse mathematics: What is to $\Pi^1_1$-$CA_0$ as $RCA_0$ is to $ACA_0$?

There is an extremely rich and well-understood analogy between "recursively enumerable" and "$\Pi^1_1$" – indeed, this is the starting point of metarecursion theory, and $\alpha$-...
Noah Schweber's user avatar
7 votes
1 answer
1k views

Is the equivalence between a $\Sigma^0_1$ and a $\Pi^0_1$ formula defining the same recursive set provable in a sufficiently strong arithmetic ?

Let $A$ be a recursive set. $A$ is recursively enumerable, so $A$ may be defined by a $\Sigma^0_1$ formula, i.e. by $\exists \overrightarrow{a} \phi (\overrightarrow{a}, n)$, where $\phi$ contains no ...
Dabs's user avatar
  • 73