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If $f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n x^n$, then $\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x^2) dx = \pi i a_{-\frac{1}{2}}$
I've noticed a curious relationship between the coefficient $a_n$ for a power series and the integral of the real line. For instance, take $f(x) = e^{-x} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{n!} x^n$. ...
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