All Questions
1 question
7
votes
1
answer
337
views
If $f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n x^n$, then $\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x^2) dx = \pi i a_{-\frac{1}{2}}$
I've noticed a curious relationship between the coefficient $a_n$ for a power series and the integral of the real line. For instance, take $f(x) = e^{-x} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{n!} x^n$. ...
- 860