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Is the following sentence equivalent to $\sf AC$ over the rest of axioms of $\sf ZF$?

For each infinite set $X$: if for all $y \in X$ we have $|y| < |X|$, then $| \bigcup X|\leq |X| $?

Note: The cardinality function $||$ here is defined after Scott's.

If not, then to which of the known choice principles this is equivalent to?

This comes in connection to this question.

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  • $\begingroup$ At the very least put a link to the other question for context... $\endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Commented Oct 4 at 15:04
  • $\begingroup$ @AsafKaragila Done! $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 4 at 15:46

1 Answer 1

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Yes, this is like Tarski's result that if $\mathfrak{c}^2=\mathfrak{c}$ for every infinite cardinal $\mathfrak{c}$, then AC holds.

In fact, it suffices to suppose that $\mathfrak{c}\mathfrak{d}=\mathfrak{c}$ whenever $\mathfrak{c},\mathfrak{d}$ are cardinals and $\mathfrak{c}$ is infinite and $\mathfrak{d}<\mathfrak{c}$. (Note this follows from your hypothesis.)

For this, fix an infinite set $y$. It suffices to see that $y$ is wellorderable. We may assume that $y$ does not contain any ordinals. Let $\kappa$ be the least ordinal such that $\kappa\not\leq\mathrm{card}(y)$. Let $\mathfrak{c}=\mathrm{card}(y\bigcup\kappa)$. Then $\mathrm{card}(y)<\mathfrak{c}$, so by the hypothesis, $y\times(y\cup\kappa)$ has cardinality $y\cup\kappa$. So $y\times\kappa\leq y\cup\kappa$. But then the usual argument shows that $y$ is wellorderable, which suffices. That is, fix an injection $\pi:y\times\kappa\to y\cup\kappa$. Since $\kappa\not\leq\mathrm{card}(y)$, for each $x\in y$, there is some $\alpha<\kappa$ such that $\pi(x,\alpha)\notin y$, so $\pi(x,\alpha)\in\kappa$. Let $\alpha_x$ be the least such. Then define $f:y\to\kappa$ by setting $f(x)=\pi(x,\alpha_x)$, and note that $f$ is injective, so $y$ is wellorderable, as desired.

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    $\begingroup$ Very nice observation. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 5 at 0:57
  • $\begingroup$ Do not we need the first two line of your answer? It seems to me that you proved every set is well-orderable from Zuhair's hypothesis. $\endgroup$
    – Hanul Jeon
    Commented Oct 5 at 20:49
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    $\begingroup$ @HanulJeon well, right, I didn't actually need to say that, and in the end they are both just equivalent to AC. I suppose I was just remarking that a version of the hypothesis that is superficially weaker than the original one is enough. $\endgroup$
    – Farmer S
    Commented Oct 5 at 23:02

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