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Let $X$ and $A$ be compact Polish spaces endowed with Borel $\sigma$-algebras. Let $\mathcal{A} = X\times \mathcal{B}(A)$ be the $\sigma$-algebra consisting of cylinders whose projections on $A$ are Borel sets. Let $u: X\times A\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function. Let $\pi\in \Delta(X\times A)$ be a probability measure.

Let $\mathcal{F}\equiv \{f:A\rightarrow A|\;f \text{ is } \mathcal{A} \text{ measurable}\}$ denote the collection of all measurable functions from $A$ to $A$.

Question: Is it true that $$\sup_{f\in \mathcal{F}}\int_{X\times A} E \big[u\big(x,f(a)\big) \big| \mathcal{A}\big] d\pi(x,a) = \int_{X\times A}\; \sup_{f\in \mathcal{F}}E \big[u\big(x,f(a)\big) \big| \mathcal{A}\big] d\pi(x,a)?$$

An economic interpretation: As Michael Greinecker pointed out in the comment, if we interpret $u$ as the a payoff function, $x\in X$ as an unknown state, $a\in A$ as an action, and $\pi$ as a system of stochastic action recommendations, then the claim I am trying to establish can be interpreted as saying that choosing an optimal contingent plan ex ante leads to the same expected utility as maximizing for each recommended action at the interim stage.



My thoughts so far:

My first instinct is to invoke the Measurable Selection Theorem, which would be similar to the arguments in Theorem 14.60 of Rockafella and Wets' "Variational Analysis". However, I do not know how to work with the conditional expectations in the expression above, which is itself a random variable that is only unique almost surely.

Specifically, to use the Measurable Selection Theorem as Rockafellar and Wets did, I would need to somehow establish that $$ \Big\{k: E \big[u\big(x,k\big) \big| a\big] \ge c \Big\} $$ is a closed set for each $a\in A$ and $c\in \mathbb{R}$, but I'm not sure why that would be true, especially since conditional expectation is only pinned down for almost all $a\in A$.

Any pointers would be greatly appreciated!

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  • $\begingroup$ I don't know the answer to the question, but I believe that the two "counter-examples" in the current answers do not directly respond to the question. In Michael's example, the choice of $f$ depends on $x$, which is not allowed. In Christophe's example, $\mathcal{F}$ is not the set of all measurable functions from $A$ to $A$. $\endgroup$
    – user_XL
    Commented May 21, 2023 at 13:52
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    $\begingroup$ If I get this right, you want to know whether the assumptions guarantee that choosing an optimal contingent plan leads to the same expected utility as maximizing for each recommended action? Ex ante vs. interim? $\endgroup$ Commented May 21, 2023 at 18:49
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    $\begingroup$ In that case, you can rewrite the problem in terms of disintegration by decomposing $\pi$ into the $A$-marginal and a transition probability from $A$ to $X$. $\endgroup$ Commented May 21, 2023 at 18:53
  • $\begingroup$ @MichaelGreinecker Yes, you are exactly right! Thank you for pointing out this interpretation - I had actually not made this connection until now. I will modify my question to reflect your point. $\endgroup$
    – Vokram
    Commented May 21, 2023 at 19:40
  • $\begingroup$ @MichaelGreinecker Could you provide a bit more details on this proof idea via disintegration? Or alternatively, could you kindly provide some references so I can learn more about this subject? Either way, if you can make your comment into an answer I will accept it. Thank you! $\endgroup$
    – Vokram
    Commented May 21, 2023 at 19:44

2 Answers 2

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Note: This answer used to be a counterexample that missed the mark.

The way to get around he definitional issues with conditional expectations is to work with regular conditional probabilities in product form, which guarantee that all conditional expectations fit together well. In particular, there exists a measurable function (or a transition probability, essentially the same thing) $\kappa:A\to X$ such that for $\pi_A$ the $A$-marginal of $\pi$, we have for every Borel set $E\subseteq X\times A$ that $$\pi(E)=\int\int 1_E(x,a)~\mathrm d\kappa_a(x)~\mathrm d\pi_A(a).$$ The function $\kappa$ is unique up to $\pi_A$-null sets.

That way, one can show that $$\max_{f\in \mathcal{F}}\int_{X\times A} u\big(x,f(a)\big)~\mathrm d\pi(x,a) =\max_{f\in \mathcal{F}}\int_A \int_X u\big(x,f(a)\big)~\mathrm d\kappa_a(x) ~\mathrm d\pi_A(a)$$ $$= \int_A \max_{f\in \mathcal{F}} \int_X u\big(x,f(a)\big)~\mathrm d\kappa_a(x) ~\mathrm d\pi_A(a).$$ The left side is trivially no larger than the right side. For the other direction, you show that the correspondence that associates to each $a$ the argmax of $\int_X u\big(x,\cdot\big)~\mathrm d\kappa_a(x)$ is measurable with nonempty compact values. So you can use the Kuratowski-Ryll-Nardzewski measurable selection theorem to turn a solution for the problem on the right to a solution of the problem on the left, which must, therefore, give the same value.

The argument does not require $X$ to be compact, any Polish space will do, and $u$ need not be continuous in $X$, any bounded (or integrably bounded) Carathéodory function will do.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for replying with an example I can understand! :) As another answer pointed out, I think your counter example uses $E[\sup_f U(x,f(a))|\mathcal{A}]$ instead of $\sup_f E[ U(x,f(a))|\mathcal{A} ]$, which assumes more information than is available in $\mathcal{A}$ when choosing $f$? In fact, the right hand side $\sup_f E[ U(x,f(a))|a ]$ should be $-1/2$ too, so I think the equality actually holds in your example. Am I missing something? $\endgroup$
    – Vokram
    Commented May 21, 2023 at 17:47
  • $\begingroup$ I think I get it now. $\endgroup$ Commented May 21, 2023 at 18:44
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ADDENDUM. Vokram told me that I answered another question, not his question. Therefore, I give another counterexample (not so different from the previous one) disproving the equality.

Choose a function $u$ depending only on the second variable, namely $u(x,a) = v(a)$ for all $(x,a) \in X \times A$, so the conditional expectations with regard to $\mathcal{A}$ have no effect on the random variables $U_f : (a,x) \mapsto u(x,f(a)) = v(f(a))$ and $\sum_f U_f$.

We are led to compare $$\sup_{f\in \mathcal{F}} \int_{X\times A} v(f(a)) \; d\pi(x,a) \text{ and } \int_{X\times A}\; \sup_{f\in \mathcal{F}} v(f(a)) \; d\pi(x,a),$$ Calling $\nu$ the second marginal of $\pi$, we compare $$\sup_{f\in \mathcal{F}} \int_{A} v(f(a)) \; d\nu(a) \text{ and } \int_{A} \sup_{f\in \mathcal{F}} v(f(a)) \; d\nu(a).$$

If $A=\mathbb{U}$, unit circle in $\mathbb{C}$, $\nu$ is the Haar measure on $\mathbb{U}$, $\mathcal{F}$ be the family of all rotations on $\mathbb{U}$, and $v : z \mapsto \Re(z)$, then the left-hand side is $0$, whereas the right-and side is $1$ because for all $a \in \mathbb{U}$ $$\sup_{f \in \mathcal F} \Re(f(a)) = |f(a)| = 1.$$


The notations are not good. For example, when you write $$\int_{X\times A}\; \sup_{f\in \mathcal{F}}E \big[u\big(x,f(a)\big) \big| \mathcal{A}\big] d\pi(x,a),$$ $u(x,f(a))$ in the integral behaves like a constant so $E \big[u\big(x,f(a)\big) \big| \mathcal{A}\big] = u(x,f(a))$.

You should write instead $$\int_{X\times A}\; \sup_{f\in \mathcal{F}} E \big[U_f \big| \mathcal{S}\big] d\pi,$$ where $U_f$ the random variable defined bu $U_f(x,a) = u(x,f(a))$ and $\mathcal{S} = \{\emptyset,X\} \times \mathcal{A}$.

Anyway, the equality cannot be always true. For example, consider $X=A=\mathbb{U}$, unit circle in $\mathbb{C}$. Endow $X \times A = \mathbb{U}^2$ with its Borel $\sigma$-field and $\eta \otimes \eta$, where $\eta$ is the Haar measure on $\mathbb{U}$. Then taking conditional expectation with regard to $\mathcal{S}$ is just taking averages over the fist component.

Let $\mathcal{F}$ be the family of all rotations on $\mathbb{U}$, and $u : (x,y) \mapsto \Re(xy)$. Then for each $f \in \mathcal{F}$, the average over $x$ of $U(x,f(a)) = \Re(xf(a))$ is $0$. Yet, since $$\sup_{f \in \mathcal F} u(x,f(a)) = \sup_{y \in \mathbb U} \Re(xy) = |x| = 1,$$ the average over $x$ of $\sup_{f \in \mathcal F} u(x,f(a))$ is $1$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for the reply, and sorry about the bad notation. I am not familiar with $\mathbb{C}$ and Hear measure, but if I understand correctly, your counter example involves $E[\sup_f U(x,f(a))|\mathcal{A}]$ whereas mine is $\sup_f E[ U(x,f(a))|\mathcal{A} ]$? Please correct me if I am wrong. From what I can tell your example shares similarities to Michael's answers. Am I missing something? In any case, thank you! $\endgroup$
    – Vokram
    Commented May 21, 2023 at 17:37
  • $\begingroup$ Haar measure on $\mathbb{U}$ is also the uniform measure on $\mathbb{U}$, namely the image of the uniform measure on $[0,2\pi[$ by $\theta \mapsto e^{i\theta}$. In my example, we have $$E\big[ \sup_{f\in \mathcal{F}} U_f \big| \mathcal{S} \big] = 1$$ whereas $$\sup_{f\in \mathcal{F}} E \big[U_f \big| \mathcal{S}\big] d\pi = 0.$$ $\endgroup$ Commented May 21, 2023 at 19:09
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for this clarification. In that case, I think your example would not disprove the claim I am trying to prove, since it would be 0 = 0? $\endgroup$
    – Vokram
    Commented May 21, 2023 at 19:48
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, you are right, I answer a different question. I will think more about that. $\endgroup$ Commented May 22, 2023 at 20:23
  • $\begingroup$ @Vokram. I put an addendum at the top to answer your question. $\endgroup$ Commented May 24, 2023 at 20:40

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