Let $G$ be a finitely generated group and $\Gamma$ be its Cayley graph with the usual word metric. Let $\mu$ be a symmetric non-degenerate measure on $G$ (maybe with finite support or smooth), and define $p(x, y) = \mu(x^{-1} y)$. As is well-known, $p$ generates a random walk on $\Gamma$ with transition probability $p(x, y)$. Now, define the quantity $\displaystyle\rho := \limsup_{n} p_n(x, y)^{1/n}$, where $p_n(x, y)$ is the probability of hitting $y$ starting from $x$ at time $n$ (recall that $p_n$ can also be obtained from the $n$-fold convolution $\mu^{(n)}$).
It it a well-known result that $G$ is amenable if and only if $\rho = 1$. A priori, though the definition of $\rho$ seems to depend on the measure $\mu$, the above result seems to suggest that it is a purely metric concept (since amenability is a variant of nice isoperimetric behavior and is a purely metric construct), and does not depend on the specific non-degenerate measure under consideration.
My question is, is the last statement correct? And if yes, can it be seen directly, or does it follow after the fact?
Further comment: I originally asked on MSE, but there is no answer there, so I am cross-posting here.