I would like to know where they come up with the formula of Lagrange interpolation (Lagrange’s interpolation formula),Lagrange_polynomial because I did some research, but I find a different definition of Lagrange interpolation. Beside would someone explain and elaborate more how they apply the formula 5.1 in example 5.6. because I don't know how to apply it. for example, what is $c_{i1}$ Thanks in advanced.
Theorem $5.5 ([26])$. Let $f : k^{r} \to k$ be any function on a finite field $k$. Then there exists a unique polynomial $g : k^{r} \to k$, such that $\forall x \in k^{r}, f(x)=g(x).$ Any such mapping over a finite field can be described by a unique polynomial. Using Lagrange interpolation, we can easily determine the polynomial. Let $f: k^{r}\to k$ be any function on $k$. Then $$g(x)=\sum_{\left(c_{i1},\ldots,c_{ir}\right)\in k^{r}}f\left(c_{i1},\ldots,c_{ir} \right)\prod_{j=1}^{r}\left(1-\left(x_{j}-c_{ij} \right)^{p-1} \right)\quad \mbox{(5.1)}$$ is the unique polynomial that defines the same mapping as $f$.
Example $5.6$ Suppose $k=\mathbb{F}_{3},r=2,$ and the mapping $f$ is defined on $\mathbb{F}_{3}^{2}=\{0,1,2\}\times\{0,1,2\}$ as follows: $$f(0,0)=0,$$ $$f(0,1)=1,$$ $$f(0,2)=2,$$ $$f(1,0)=1,$$ $$f(1,1)=2,$$ $$f(1,2)=0,$$ $$f(2,0)=2,$$ $$f(2,1)=0,$$ $$f(2,2)=1.$$ Then the polynomial $g$ that defines the same mapping as $f$ is constructed as follows: $$\begin{align*} g(x,y)&=0\\ &+1\left((1-x^{2})(1-(y-1)^{2}) \right)\\ &+2\left((1-x^{2})(1-(y-2)^{2}) \right)\\ &+1\left((1-(x-1)^{2})(1-y^{2}) \right)\\ &+2\left((1-(x-1)^{2})(1-(y-1)^{2}) \right)\\ &+0\\ &+2\left((1-(x-2)^{2})(1-y^{2}) \right)\\ &+0\\ &+1\left((1-(x-2)^{2})(1-(y-2)^{2})\right)\\ &=x+y. \end{align*}$$ Reference: Mathematical Concepts and Methods in Modern Biology 1st Edition Using Modern Discrete Models