I am going to speak in intuitionistic mathematics here, as that's what's relevant for this question.
It's worthwhile recalling a bit of background.
There are several notions of completeness of an ordered field:
- Cauchy completeness: every Cauchy sequence converges.
- Dedekind completeness: every Dedekind cut determines an element of the field.
- MacNeille completeness: an inhabited bounded set has a supremum.
The field of rationals may be completeted with respect to any one of these to yield three kinds of reals, the Cauchy reals $\mathbb{R}_C$, the Dedekind reals $\mathbb{R}_D$ and the MacNeille reals $\mathbb{R}_M$. These are related as $\mathbb{R}_C \subset \mathbb{R}_D \subset \mathbb{R}_M$.
The principle "a bounded non-decreasing sequence has a supremum" holds in $\mathbb{R}_M$, but it cannot be shown to hold in $\mathbb{R}_D$ (and even less so in $\mathbb{R}_C$).
The principle does not fail completely for $\mathbb{R}_D$. If $a : \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{R}_D$ is a non-decreasing sequences, we can define the lower Dedekind cut $L = \{q \in \mathbb{Q} \mid \exists n . q < a_n\}$, but not in general the upper cut. Thus, the supremum $\sup_n a_n$ exists as a lower Dedekind real, which is good enough in some situations.
Many uses of the principle are inessential, especially when with some extra effort we can show that the non-decreasing sequence is Cauchy (I imagine this is what you did to prove Herschfeld's Convergence Theorem). For an essential use, we need to look for applications in which the non-decreasing sequence cannot be shown to be Cauchy. This often happens when the sequence depends on some extra parameters. Let me give one such simple example.
Consider the sequence of functions $f_n : [0,1] \to \mathbb{R}$ where $f_n(x) = x^n$. Using the principle "every bounded non-increasing sequence has an infimum", we can show that $(f_n)_n$ converges point-wise on $[0,1]$. Indeed, given any $x \in [0,1]$, it is easy to see that $x \geq x^2 \geq x^3 \geq \cdots$, therefore $\lim_n f_n(x)$ exists. Of course, the limit map $f(x) = \lim_n x^n$ satisfies $f(1) = 1$ and $f(x) = 0$ for $x \in [0,1)$. Without the principle, we cannot show that $(f_n)_n$ converges pointwise because its limit $f$ would be a discontinuous function.
Incidentally, the above example shows that there are discontinuous maps on MacNeille reals.