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Let $f:\mathbb{R}^n\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ be a non-negative, smooth, uniformly bounded function with uniformly bounded first derivative. Then $f$ defines a bounded operator on $L^2(\mathbb{R}^n)$ as well as on $H^1(\mathbb{R}^n)$, the first Sobolev space. In $L^2(\mathbb{R}^n)$ the following equality holds: for $e_1,e_2\in C_c^\infty(\mathbb{R}^n)$, $$\langle fe_1,e_2\rangle_{L^2}=\langle\sqrt{f}e_1,\sqrt{f}e_2\rangle_{L^2}.$$ Question: Is there a way to do this in $H^1$, ie does there exist a function $g_f$ such that $$\langle fe_1,e_2\rangle_{H^1}=\langle g_f(e_1),g_f(e_2)\rangle_{H^1}?$$

Follow-up question: Is the adjoint $f^*:H^1\rightarrow H^1$ also given by function multiplication?

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    $\begingroup$ Such an identity would imply that multiplication by $f$ is a symmetric operator, which is not $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 5, 2020 at 17:14
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    $\begingroup$ As to the followup question about the adjoint, I previously asked it on Math.SE, but never got an answer. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 6, 2020 at 0:36
  • $\begingroup$ @NateEldredge: I think your MSE question can be answered by taking Fourier transforms. The multiplication becomes convolution, or we can say we have an integral operator. Of course, the adjoint of a (bounded) integral operator on $L^2(\mathbb R)$ with kernel $K(s,t)$ is the integral operator with kernel $\overline{K(t,s)}$, and we can handle the actual situation (on a weighted $L^2$ space) in the same way by absorbing the weight into the kernel temporarily. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 6, 2020 at 2:35
  • $\begingroup$ In particular, the answer to the "follow-up question" is no. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 6, 2020 at 2:36

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$\newcommand{\R}{\mathbb R}$ The square root of the multiplication operator does not exist unless the function $f$ is constant (and, obviously, the square root exists if $f$ is constant).

Indeed, suppose that there exists a function $g_f$ such that \begin{equation*} \langle fx,y\rangle_{H^1}=\langle g_f(x),g_f(y)\rangle_{H^1} \tag{1} \end{equation*} for all $x$ and $y$ in $C_c^\infty(\R^n)$. The simple but crucial observation is that $\langle g_f(x),g_f(y)\rangle_{H^1}=\overline{\langle g_f(y),g_f(x)\rangle_{H^1} }$, so that (1) implies
$$\langle fx,y\rangle_{H^1}=\overline{\langle fy,x\rangle_{H^1}}, $$ which can be rewritten as \begin{equation*} \int_{\R^n}\sum_{j=1}^n (D_jf)\,(x\,D_jz-z\,D_jx)=0, \tag{2} \end{equation*} where $z:=\bar y$ and $D_j$ denotes the partial derivative with respect to the $j$th argument.

Take any $x\in C_c^\infty(\R^n)$ and any $a=(a_1,\dots,a_n)\in\R^n$, and then let $z:=xe_a$, where the function $e_a$ is defined by the formula $e_a(t_1,\dots,t_n):=e^{i(a_1t_1+\dots+a_nt_n)}$ for $t=(t_1,\dots,t_n)\in\R^n$. Then $x\,D_jz-z\,D_jx=ia_jx^2e_a$ for all $j=1,\dots,n$. So, (2) yields $\sum_{j=1}^n a_jD_jf=0$ for all $(a_1,\dots,a_n)\in\R^n$, which means that $f$ is constant.

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  • $\begingroup$ Many thanks for your answer. I've added a second part to the original question that now seems relevant, about adjoints. $\endgroup$
    – geometricK
    Commented Jan 5, 2020 at 23:30
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    $\begingroup$ @ougoah : To keep things in good order, any additional questions should be asked in separate posts, especially when the original question has been answered. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 6, 2020 at 0:32
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    $\begingroup$ @ougoah : Your additional question has now been answered at mathoverflow.net/questions/349853/… $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 6, 2020 at 19:07

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