I want to show the following theorem in a lecture:
Let $F \in C^{\infty}(\mathbb{C}^{k}, \mathbb{C})$ such that $F(0)=0.$
Let $G: \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{C}^{k}$, $x \mapsto (f_1(x),..,f_k(x))$ where $f_1,...,f_k \in \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^n;\mathbb{C}).$ (the space of rapidly decaying functions.)
Then I want to show that $F \circ G: \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ is a map in $ \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^n;\mathbb{C}).$
Moreover, I want to argue then that in the standard semi-norm topology we have that the map $\Phi : \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^n;\mathbb{C})^k \rightarrow \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R}^n;\mathbb{C})$ , $(f_1,...,f_k) \mapsto F\circ (f_1,...,f_k)$is continuous.
The result is rather obvious and I also have a proof for this involving the chain-rule for arbitrary expressions of the form $\partial^{\alpha}(F\circ G)$, as they appear in the seminorms $p_{\alpha,\beta}((F\circ G))= \sup_{x}|x^{\beta} \partial^{\alpha}(F\circ G)(x)|$. But this chain-rule formula is a nightmare to write down which is why I started wondering whether there is a more direct argument why this holds avoiding the cumbersome calculation.