Let $f \in W^{1, p} (\mathbb R^n)$. A classical approximation theorem (see for instance, the book by Evans and Gariepy) says that we can approximate $f$ by Lipschitz functions, in the sense that for every $\varepsilon > 0$, there exists some Lipschitz continuous $u_\varepsilon$ on $\mathbb R^n$ such that
$$\mu(\{f \neq u_\varepsilon\}) \leq \varepsilon.$$
Such a function $u_\varepsilon$ will be called an $\varepsilon$-Lipschitz approximation to $f$.
Motivated by this, we want to characterise membership in $W^{1, p}$ by the best Lipschitz constants of these approximations.
Given any measurable $f$, we define the $\varepsilon$-Lipschitz modulus of continuity $\omega_{\varepsilon} (f)$ by
$$\omega_{\varepsilon} f = \inf \{L \geq 0 \, | \, \text{There exists an }\varepsilon\text{-Lipschitz approximation to }f\text{ with Lipschitz constant }L\}$$
where by convention we set the infimum to be infinite if the set is empty.
Question: Let $1 \leq p \leq \infty$, and $f \in L^{1}_{\text{loc}} (\mathbb R^n)$. Is it true that $f \in W^{1, p}(\mathbb R^n)$ if and only if
$$\omega_{\varepsilon} f = O(\varepsilon^{-1/p})?$$
Here the $O$ notation is as $\varepsilon \to 0_+$, and we allow the implied constant to depend on $f$.