Let $p,q$ be nonnegative integers. The product of symmetric groups $\Sigma_p\times\Sigma_q$ acts on the power set $P(\{1, \dots ,p\}\times\{1, \dots ,q\})$ in the evident way. You can ask what proportion of the elements of $P(\{1, \dots ,p\}\times\{1, \dots ,q\})$ live in a free $\Sigma_p\times \Sigma_q$-orbit. Write $f(p,q)$ for this proportion.
In a project that I am working on, some problem boils down to needing to know that $f(p,q)$ asymptotically approaches $1$. As $p\rightarrow\infty$, $f(p,q)$ doesn't converge to $1$. By symmetry, as $q\rightarrow\infty$, $f(p,q)$ doesn't converge to $1$. However, I claim that, if you let $p$ and $q$ both go to infinity at the same rate, then $f(p,q)$ indeed converges to $1$.
That is, as $p$ and $q$ both go to infinity, the proportion of subsets of $\{1, \dots ,p\}\times\{1, \dots ,q\}$ which are in a free $\Sigma_p\times \Sigma_q$-orbit converges to $1$. Put another way: as $p$ and $q$ both go to infinity, among the bicolored graphs with $p$ red vertices and $q$ blue vertices, the proportion which have a nontrivial automorphism goes to zero.
My question: was this claim already known to be true? Is it in the literature somewhere, where I can just cite it instead of typing up my own argument? I know very little about combinatorics, so it took me some work to prove the claim. My argument uses Pólya enumeration to count the unlabelled bicolored graphs with $p$ red vertices and $q$ blue vertices (as Harary already did in the 1950s), then a tricky and fairly meticulous estimate to put an upper bound on the number of such graphs as $p,q\rightarrow \infty$. That bound shows that there aren't too many $\Sigma_p\times \Sigma_q$-orbits in $P(\{1, \dots p\}\times \{1, \dots ,q\})$ as $p,q\rightarrow \infty$. Once you know that, you see that lots of orbits have to be as big as possible, i.e., free.
But I wonder if combinatorialists already know such things. I searched the literature but the only results I found on asymptotics of the number of unlabelled bicolored graphs were Harrison's from 1973 and Atmaca and Oruc's from 2018. The bounds I prove are stronger than the ones in those papers, so I wonder if this is something that combinatorialists haven't already done.
Hope this question isn't too naïve about combinatorics, a subject I have basically no background in. Sorry if it is. Thanks for reading.