I tried to find an inverse Laplace transform by series as follows $$ f(t)=L^{-1}_s\left(e^{-\sqrt{s}}\right)(t)=L^{-1}_s\left(\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^k}{k!} s^{\frac{k}{2}}\right)(t)$$ and by separate even orders with odd orders and get $$ f(t)=L^{-1}_s\left(\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{2k}}{(2k)!} s^{k}+\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{2k+1}}{(2k+1)!} s^{k+\frac{1}{2}}\right)(t)$$ then $$ f(t)=L^{-1}_s\left(\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{s^k}{(2k)!}\right)-\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(2k+1)!} \frac{1}{\Gamma\left(-k-\frac{1}{2}\right)t^{k+\frac{3}{2}}} $$ now its easy to evaluate the series $$ f(t)=L^{-1}_s\left(\cosh\left(\sqrt{s}\right)\right)+\frac{t^{-\frac{3}{2}}}{2\sqrt{\pi}}e^{-\frac{1}{4t}} $$ now I know the result is only $$\frac{t^{-\frac{3}{2}}}{2\sqrt{\pi}}e^{-\frac{1}{4t}} $$ So is the Laplace transform of $\cosh\left(\sqrt{s}\right)$ is zero ? and what if we use this way $$ L^{-1}_s\left(\cosh\left(\sqrt{s}\right)\right)=L^{-1}_s\left(\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{s^k}{(2k)!}\right)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(2k)!\Gamma(-k)t^{k+1}} $$ now gamma for negative integers is infinity So we can say (as wolfram say) $$ \frac{1}{\Gamma(-k)}=0$$ finally $$ f(t)=L^{-1}_s\left(e^{-\sqrt{s}}\right)(t)=\frac{t^{-\frac{3}{2}}}{2\sqrt{\pi}}e^{-\frac{1}{4t}} $$ So is that using of series to get the result of inverse Laplace transform wrong ? or its true just here and how ?
THIS QUESTION asked also on MSE