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I am looking for a function $f:[0,1]\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ which is not Riemann integrable such that $$\sum_{k=0}^n |f(x_k)-f(x_{k-1})|^2 <1$$ for every choice of $0=x_0\le x_1 \le \cdots \le x_n =1$

I tried the function

$$f(x)= \begin{cases} 0 , x \in \mathbb{Q}\\ x^2 , x \in \mathbb{Q} ^c \end{cases}$$

Does this function satisfy the given condition? I tried many choices of partitions for this function and it seems to satisfy the given condition. I couldn't get a contradiction in any of those cases. Can anyone help to prove or disprove the existence of such function?Thank you.

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  • $\begingroup$ Doesn't your condition imply that $f$ is bounded and has at most countably many discontinuities? and is therefore Riemann integrable? $\endgroup$
    – bof
    Commented Dec 13, 2023 at 6:07
  • $\begingroup$ Please use a high-level tag like "ca.classical-analysis-and-odes". I added this tag now. $\endgroup$
    – GH from MO
    Commented Dec 13, 2023 at 6:28
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    $\begingroup$ Your overall question is answered, but on the side question of your specific function $f$: Fix any $x \in (0,1)$, and small rational $\epsilon$; then take the partition $x \leq x+ \sqrt{2}\epsilon \leq x+2\epsilon \leq x + (2+\sqrt{2})\epsilon \cdots \leq x+2n\epsilon \leq x + (2n+\sqrt{2})\epsilon$. For $n \geq \frac{1}{x^4}$, the sum of squares of jumps will be $>1$; now any $\epsilon < (1-x)/3n$ makes this fit. Idea: near $x$, $f$ jumps by about $x^2$ between rational and irrational values; since both are dense, you can take as many such jumps as you need near $x$. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 14, 2023 at 15:28
  • $\begingroup$ Do you have the textbook from which you got the idea. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 18, 2023 at 8:01
  • $\begingroup$ @Euler-Masceroni this is not from a textbook it's from a competitive exam for research studies $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 20, 2023 at 7:56

2 Answers 2

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Your condition implies that $f$ is Riemann integrable. To see this, consider a partition $$0=a_0<a_1<\dotsb <a_n=1,$$ and pick two arbitrary sample points $s_j,t_j\in[a_{j-1},a_j]$ from each subinterval. The difference of the corresponding Riemann sums can be estimated by the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality as $$\left|\sum_{j=1}^n (f(s_j)-f(t_j))(a_j-a_{j-1})\right|\leq\left(\sum_{j=1}^n |f(s_j)-f(t_j)|^2\right)^{1/2}\left(\sum_{j=1}^n(a_j-a_{j-1})^2\right)^{1/2}.$$ On the right-hand side, the first sum is less than $1$ by the initial assumption, while the second sum is at most $\max_j (a_j-a_{j-1})$. Therefore, $$\left|\sum_{j=1}^n (f(s_j)-f(t_j))(a_j-a_{j-1})\right|\leq\max_j (a_j-a_{j-1})^{1/2}.$$ This means that if the mesh of the partition is less than $\epsilon^2$, then the lower and upper Darboux sums of the partition differ by less than $\epsilon$. This implies that $f$ is Riemann integrable (by a well-known criterion).

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    $\begingroup$ That's a very neat proof. Thank you :) $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 13, 2023 at 11:46
  • $\begingroup$ How last equation followed $\endgroup$
    – Ricci Ten
    Commented Oct 21 at 11:56
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A function $f:[0,1]\to\mathbb R$ which satisfies the given condition is Riemann integrable. By the Lebesgue–Vitali theorem, it will suffice to show that $f$ is bounded and continuous almost everywhere. It is obviously bounded; I will show that its set of points of discontinuity is countable.

If $D$ is the set of points of discontinuity of $f$, then $D=\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty D_n$ where $D_n=\{x\in[0,1]:\omega_f(x)\gt\frac1n\}$ and $\omega_f(x)$ is the oscillation of $f$ at $x$. The stated condition implies that $D_n$ has fewer than $n^2$ elements, whence $D$ is countable.

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