I use the convention of the Weinberg QFT textbooks, that is, $(-,+,+,+)$.
According to Weinberg QFT vol 2 p. 369, he says the Euclidean Dirac operator \begin{equation} {D}:=[i\partial_i +t_\alpha A_{i \alpha}]\gamma_i \end{equation} is Hermitian. Here, $\partial_4:=-i\partial_0$, $A_{4\alpha}:= iA^0_\alpha$ and $\gamma_4:=i \gamma^0$. $\alpha$ is the gauge index.
Let us simplify and focus on the case of $U(1)$ gauge theory so that there is no $\alpha$. Also, assume that $A_0, A_1, A_2, A_3$ are real-valued Schwartz functions on $\mathbb{R}^4$.
Then, the above $D$ must be a densely defined unbounded operator on the Hilbert space $[L^2(\mathbb{R}^4)]^4$.
My question is, what would be the maximal domain of $D$ that makes it self-adjoint? Physicists would not care about this kind of subtlety but, I feel uncomfortable about not distinguishing between Hermitian and self-adjoint.
Could anyone please clarify?