I'd like to prove the following conjecture.
Let $x = \frac{p}{q}\pi$ be a rational angle ($p,q$ integers, $q \geq 1$).
Then
$f(x) = \frac{2}{\pi} \arccos{\left(2\cos^4(2x)-1 \right)}$
is irrational if $x$ is not an integer multiple of $\frac{\pi}{8}$. Is this true? Is the other direction true too?
I've tried to use the standard manipulations, Chebyshev polynomials, etc. (see https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/398687/how-do-i-prove-that-frac1-pi-arccos1-3-is-irrational), but am otherwise quite stuck.
Some evaluations just to see a trend (we can restrict domain of $x$ to be $[0,\pi/2]$): \begin{align} x & = \frac{\pi}{2} \implies f(x)= 0 \text{ (Rational) }, \\ x & = \frac{\pi}{3}, \implies f(x) = 2\arccos(-7/8)/\pi, \\ x & = \frac{\pi}{4}, \implies f(x) = 2 \text{ (Rational) }, \\ x & = \frac{\pi}{5}, \implies f(x) = 2\arccos(-3(3+\sqrt{5})/16)/\pi, \\ x & = \frac{2\pi}{5}, \implies f(x) = 2\arccos(3(-3+\sqrt{5})/16)/\pi, \\ x & = \frac{\pi}{6}, \implies f(x) = 2\arccos(-7/8)/\pi, \\ x & = \frac{\pi}{7}, \implies f(x) = 2\arccos(-1+2\sin^4(3\pi/14))/\pi \\ x & = \frac{2\pi}{7}, \implies f(x) = 2\arccos(-1+2\sin^4(\pi/14))/\pi \\ x & = \frac{2\pi}{7}, \implies f(x) = 2\arccos(-1+2\sin^4(\pi/7))/\pi \\ x & = \frac{\pi}{8}, \frac{3\pi}{8}, \implies f(x) = 4/3 \text{ (Rational) }\\ \cdots \end{align}