If $q = [q_0;q_1 \dots]$, say $q_i$ is the $i$-th partial quotient of $q$. My question is the following:
Can one construct an explicit example of irrational $r,s > 0$ such that
- $\{ 1,r,s\}$ is $\mathbb{Q}$-linearly independent,
- $r,s$ have bounded, aperiodic partial quotients, and
- $r+s$ has bounded, aperiodic partial quotients?
That is, assuming such a pair exists. I would guess one does--in fact I would guess every irrational with bounded, aperiodic partial quotients has such a decomposition. But this general statement is not what I'm interested in. I am interested in seeing even one example.
As to known results which apply, all I have found is this article posted on ArXiv, pointed out to me by user3733558. The titular theorem of the paper would immediately answer my question. However, I've no idea as to its validity.
Here is the MSE post corresponding to this post.