I am reading through Alan Baker's Transcendental Number Theory (don't worry if you don't know the book or the subject - this question is pretty much self-contained). Lemma 1 of Chapter 3 states an upper bound for $\nu(x;k)$, defined to be the least common multiple of the integers $x+1,\ldots,x+k$. The claim is that, for some absolute constant $c$, one has $\nu(x;k)\leq\left(\frac{c(x+k)}{k}\right)^{2k}$. The proof, as quoted from the book, is as follows:
(...) We write $\nu(x;k)=\nu'\nu''$, where all prime factors of $\nu'$, $\nu''$ are $\leq k$ and $>k$, respectively. Since the exponent to which a prime $p$ divides $\nu'$ is at most $\frac{\log(x+k)}{\log p}$, we have $$\log\nu'\leq\sum\log(x+k)\leq\frac{c'k\log(x+k)}{\log k}$$ where the summation is over all primes $p\leq k$, and $c'$, like $c$, $c''$ and $c'''$ below, denotes an absolute constant. Now we can assume that $k>c''$ and that $x>c''k$ for some sufficiently large $c''$, for otherwise the desired conclusion would follow at once from the simpler upper bounds $(x+k)^k$ and $c^{x+k}$ for $\nu(x;k)$. Thus we see that $$\nu'\leq\left(\frac{c'''(x+k)}{k}\right)^{2k}\text{.}$$ But clearly $\nu''$ divides $\binom{x+k}{k}$, and this does not exceed $\frac{(x+k)^k}{k!}$; the required estimate is now apparent.
I am really confused about the part I wrote in bold. I understand why we can assume that $k>c''$, but I don't understand why we can assume $x>c''k$; in fact, I find it strange that the "easy case" is precisely when $x$ is small compared to $k$, since this is precisely when the asserted bound does not seem useless compared to the easier (and better for $x$ large compared to $k$) bound $(x+k)^k$. Moreover, even assuming those two inequalities, I can't see how the conclusion on $\nu'$ follows.
Any help in understanding this would be appreciated; if anyone sees another way to prove this result I would also like to know it.