Let $p, \ell_1, \ell_2$ be distinct prime numbers, and $x_1, x_2 \in \overline{\mathbf{Q}}^\times$.
If $$ \frac{\log_p x_1}{\log_p \ell_1} = \frac{\log_p x_2}{\log_p \ell_2}, $$
does it follow that both ratios $\log_p x_i / \log_p \ell_i$ must be in $\mathbf{Q}$? (I know that both ratios must be either rational or transcendental, by Mahler's p-adic Gelfond--Schneider theorem.)