How to solve this kind of Fredholm’s equation? $$ x(t)+\lambda \int\limits_{0}^{1}\! \big[ts - \min\{t,s\}\big]x(s)ds=t $$ Thanks for any help.
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2$\begingroup$ The problem you pose is interesting, if only for the unusual structure of the kernel: if I could ask, what kind of problem led you to such equation? $\endgroup$– Daniele TampieriCommented May 31, 2019 at 17:27
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$\begingroup$ I’m practicing my skills of solving such problems and I found this one very interesting $\endgroup$– JohnCommented May 31, 2019 at 18:01
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2$\begingroup$ I'm not quite sure why the question was downvoted twice. Admittedly, it is a bit too vague since the OP does not clarify what he means by "solve". Still, I agree with @DanieleTampieri that the question is quite interesting due to the special structure of the kernel. It might be possible to obtain rather concrete information about this equation, but this does not seem to be trivial at all. $\endgroup$– Jochen GlueckCommented Jun 1, 2019 at 8:54
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4$\begingroup$ @Jochen Glueck it is not trivial, but I'm afraid it may be considered not of research level (I put an answer to explain why). $\endgroup$– Pietro MajerCommented Jun 1, 2019 at 12:15
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1$\begingroup$ @PietroMajer: Quite embarrassingly, I was not aware of the facts you describe in your answer (I'm quite used to considering differential equations in operator theoretic terms - but apparently I don't have sufficient experience in explicitely computing their Green functions). Anyway, I'm happy that the question was asked and that you took the time to answer it - so thanks a lot! $\endgroup$– Jochen GlueckCommented Jun 1, 2019 at 12:42
2 Answers
You can immediately translate this integral equation into an easy second order linear ODE on $[0,1]$ with boundary conditions $x(0)=0$, $x(1)=1$. (I'm not going to do it for you). Just note that your integrand $ts-\min(t,s)$ is the Green function of the Laplacian in dimension $1$ (i.e. the second derivative) with Dirichlet boundary condition: one has $$\int_0^1\big(sr-\min(t,s)\big)x(t)ds=u(t)$$ if and only $$\cases{\ddot u(t)=x(t)\\u(0)=0\\u(1)=0\,.}$$ (The easy computation to check the latter fact starts writing $\int_0^1=\int_0^t+\int_t^1$; then pull the $t$-factors out of the integrals and derive (...). After that, you may want to precise further the above claim in the various functional settings; however for your eigenvalue problem everything is necessarily classic and smooth).
$\newcommand{\la}{\lambda} $ Let us formalize the question as follows:
Take any complex number $\la$. Let $K(s,t):=s\wedge t-st$ for $s,t$ in $[0,1]$. Find $x\in L^2[0,1]$ such that \begin{equation*} x(t)-\la \int_0^1 K(s,t)x(s)\,ds=t \tag{1} \end{equation*} for almost all $t\in[0,1]$.
Note that the kernel $K$ is the covariance function of the Brownian bridge, with the eigenfunctions $\sin j\pi\cdot$ and the corresponding eigenvalues $1/(j^2\pi^2)$ for natural $j$; see e.g. Section The Brownian bridge. Also, for $t\in[0,1)$ \begin{equation*} t=\sum_{j=1}^\infty b_j\sin j\pi t,\quad\text{where}\quad b_j:=\frac{2(-1)^{j-1}}{j\pi}. \end{equation*} Therefore, equation (1) can be rewritten as \begin{equation*} x(t)=\sum_{j=1}^\infty c_j\sin j\pi t \tag{2} \end{equation*} with \begin{equation*} c_j-\frac\la{j^2\pi^2}\,c_j=b_j, \end{equation*} so that \begin{equation*} c_j=\frac{b_j}{1-\la/(j^2\pi^2)}; \tag{3} \end{equation*} this unique solution $x$ defined by (2)--(3) exists iff $\la\notin\{j^2\pi^2\colon j=1,2,\dots\}$.