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I want to solve the equation: $$ \begin{cases} \nabla \times (F\times\mathbf v)=g, \\ \operatorname{div}(\mathbf v)=0, \end{cases}\label{1}\tag{1} $$ where $F$ and $g$ are given vector fields.
The theorem shown in the attached picture (taken from Sandro Salsa, Partial Differential Equations in Action From Modelling to Theory, Third Edition, Chapter 3.6.3, MR3497072, Zbl 1383.35003) states that we can solve it using Helmholtz decomposition and find an explicit solution.
I'm wondering about the condition on the vector $F$ so that equation \eqref{1} admits a unique solution: are there any references to this equation?

Theorem 3.34. Let $f \in C^1(\mathbb R^3)$, $\boldsymbol\omega \in C^2(\mathbb R^3; \mathbb R^3)$ such that $\operatorname{div} \boldsymbol\omega = 0$ and, for $\lvert\mathbf x\rvert$ large, $$ \lvert f(\mathbf x)\rvert \le \frac M{\lvert\mathbf x\rvert^{3 + \varepsilon}},\quad \lvert\operatorname{curl} \boldsymbol\omega(\mathbf x)\rvert \le \frac M{\lvert\mathbf x\rvert^{3 + \varepsilon}} \quad (\varepsilon > 0). $$ Then, the unique solution vanishing at infinity of the system $$ \begin{cases} \operatorname{div} \mathbf u = f \\ \operatorname{curl} \mathbf u = \boldsymbol\omega \end{cases}\quad\text{in $\mathbb R^3$} $$ is given by the vector field $$ \mathbf u(\mathbf x) = \int_{\mathbb R^3} \frac1{4\pi\lvert\mathbf x - \mathbf y\rvert}\operatorname{curl} \boldsymbol\omega(\mathbf y)\,d\mathbf y - \nabla\int_{\mathbb R^3} \frac1{4\pi\lvert\mathbf x - \mathbf \rvert}f(\mathbf y)\,d\mathbf y.\tag{3.57}\label{481778_3.57} $$

Theorem 3.34

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  • $\begingroup$ Is $\mathrm v$ the same as $v$? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 4 at 17:46
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, it is the same. $\endgroup$
    – Gustave
    Commented Nov 4 at 17:57
  • $\begingroup$ I edited the various typefaces to all just $\mathbf v$. \\ When possible, it is best to use searchable text instead of non-searchable images. I have transcribed your image, so, once you have confirmed that it is correct or fixed any errors, you can remove the image. $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Nov 6 at 3:46

1 Answer 1

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Solutions are never unique. The simplest case to see is when $F$ has divergence zero. Then you can add any constant multiple of $F$ to $\mathbf{v}$ to get another solution.

But in any region where $\operatorname{div}F\ne0$ there are functions $\phi$ such that $\operatorname{div}(\phi F) =0$, and there $\mathbf{v}+\phi F$ is another solution.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you sir for the answer. Isvthere any regularization method or boundary conditions on a bounded domain to ensure uniqueness of $v$? $\endgroup$
    – Gustave
    Commented Nov 5 at 17:24
  • $\begingroup$ @Gustave I don't know, but boundary conditions often are suggested by whatever application you have. One other way that can sometimes help is in Friedrichs' paper, Symmetric Positive Linear Differential Equations, CPAM xi 1958, that suggests BC based on the equation itself. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 9 at 11:44

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